Professional Goal Statement

There are many who feel that education ends upon completion of college. I feel differently, however, and understand that there is so much that can be learned in further studies such as graduate school. In line with my decision to pursue my studies in graduate school, I understand that there are more opportunities for those who receive the extra training necessary to be ahead in today’s competitive world. I feel that in order for me to gain an advantage in the field of Organizational Psychology, I need to devote more time and energy in learning more about the recent developments in this field. This will enable to pursue my career as either an experienced business managers or as a human resource professional. †¢ Academic Experience Having completed my degree at the Pennsylvania State University and having specialized in Psychological & Social Sciences, I am confident that I am fully equipped for the minimum requirements of this course. The various courses and training programs that I enrolled in during my tenure in college such as values and ethics in health and human development professions, legal and ethical issues in human services, social psychology, applied social psychology, advanced cognitive psychology, abnormal psychology, child behavior disorders, learning and instruction and elementary statistics in psychology have all given me the insight that I need to keep up with the course requirements for this program. Work /Other Experience I am currently employed as a Social Service Counselor at the Office of Youth and development at the Swanson Youth Center in Monroe, LA. As such, I handle the decision making process of the treatment team including formulating therapeutic activities and recommending a treatment plan as well as managing a caseload by scheduling appointments, evaluating client progress in counseling sessions and making recommendations to the treatment team. I believe that this work experience is vital to my training and the pursuit of my career because it will help to prepare me for what comes ahead. It is said that not every lesson can be learned in the confines of the classroom and that most of what is learned comes from experience. As my resume shows, I have ample work experience that I am confident will be invaluable to my development in the future. †¢ Personal Qualities I get things done. The job gets done faster and more efficiently as and when the objectives are clear, the strategies acceptable, and the resources are available. Of course, in the real world, these do not always happen. To the extent that they happen and to the extent that I can make them happen, I go after them and manage to get the job done. This work ethic which I have developed over time will prove to be very helpful once I am dealing with the requirements of this course. †¢ Why Walden? One of the most difficult choices is always that of choosing a good school for the reason that there are many different factors to consider. There are many things that need to be examined yet when it came to deciding why I would select Walden there was no such difficulty. Given the global reputation that Walden enjoys as being one of the leading academic institutions in the country, it would serve me well to be able to gain the knowledge that this fine school can impart upon me. The fact that the school also offers an online program is another great advantage because it will allow me to study and work at the same time.

Performance Management Plan Essay

Compensation and benefits concerns are very important to employees and employers. A lot of the top performing employees are drawn by successful organizations, as well as the organization providing a detail compensation and benefit plan. Now it is time to focus on the performance management structure that will help you succeed in your business. In this document I will focus on different aspects that will help you launch a well-done performance plan. This plan will also help you increase the performance of your associates and prevent a high turn over. Performance management is part o Lean Manufacturing, and even though your company does not belong to manufacturing, we can implement it and get good results. Performance Management is about letting you employees know the health of the company and taking the appropriate actions to prevent a decrease in performance, efficiency, high costs, etc. The first objective in implementing Performance Management is that there must be a commitment between the associates and the organization to improve the performance. Communication plays an important role here, the objectives must be clear in order to have a good communication between departments and this will arises alignment. As part of having a good communication, employees must have clear their responsibilities, goals ad how they are performing. You must also be prepared to correspond to the good performance of your associates; you must also create a plan for professional growth for them. Associates tend to be motivated and work as a team in continuous improvement projects and finding ways to improve the quality of the organization. The second objective would be setting up system a method to measure the  performance of your employees. We already talked about how to measure the health of your company and we talked about Key Performance Indicators as a method to measure the objectives of your different departments. Now it is time to go a little bit deep and set up a method for measuring the performance of your employees. During a performance appraisal you must abroad skills, ethics, how he/she is performing according to the tasks that are cited in the job description. There is not a specific method for measuring the skills of an associate, what is really important is to monitor your employees on a consistent basis. An employee appreciates to know where he/she stands and know what he is doing right or the things that need to be improved. 360-degree feedback is a method that I would like to recommend. The reason is that in this method the employee not only receives feedback from the supervisor; peers, subordinates or even customers if applicable provide feedback. Obviously this method involves more and provides a better picture. I can provide more specific information or if you want to use the traditional way is correct. Third, so far we have covered the base. Now it would be time to execute what has been planned. In this step I would like to cover how to convince your people that Performance Management is important. Your supervisors must understand that if something is not measured it cannot be improved, and that associates are important for the success of the company. Performance Management is a cycle where data is collected, analyzed, it is seen if there is room for improvement and then action is taken to make the corrections needed. I recommend the usage of board to communicate the performance of your employees and at some point build an internal competition in order to reach better results. These board also helpful for monitoring and you can even add a log of corrective actions with responsible and due dates. Here is an example of the information that I used to post in another company. Every operator used to receive weekly feed back about their performance and at the end of the month the results were posted and they knew the bonus percent they has earned. As far as daily information transmitted to the  associates, s software was bought and we configured every machine with the appropriate standards and the associates were able to see the weekly schedule, plan fulfillment, performance, waste, etc. This company in specific belongs to another industry but the purpose is the same. Also, keep in mind that at the end customer satisfaction is almost the most important thing. Finally, I would like to make some comments regarding how to provide feedback to the employees, As mentioned before, feedback is important to help employees perform at their best. You will notice that Performance management is being effective when they ask how they can improve and what are the things that are doing right. This practice will lead you to create a training plan or training matrix. The information provided must be specific and if possible with examples. Also, let them speak and listen to what they tell. Keep in mind that at the end, they are the one that are in contact with the process. In conclusion, motivation is very essential for every person in your business and every body must keep in mind that what they do is important for your clients. Performance Management is about measuring and knows what to do with the collected data. With this information you will be able to provide feedback and achieve goals. References Lean Six Sigma Resources. Retrieved January 29,2015 From http://www.beyondlean.com/

Assess the View That Traditional Class Identities

These groups are the working class, middle class and upper class. However now some believe there isn’t this social class division within society and that everyone is equal. People that would agree traditional class identities are no longer important are postmodernists. These have the view that class no longer really matters in modern Britain and that now people no longer identify themselves according to their class background. Clarke and Saunders (1991) would agree with the view of postmodernists. They suggest that classes have become fragmented into many different groups and now they have been replaced with other influences such as gender and lifestyles. Although they is some evidence which suggests these ideas are exaggerated. Marshall’s survey into how people view themselves showed people still see social class as a source of identity. The traditional working class was a group of people that was developed after the industrialisation when they were need for large amounts of manual workers. This group formed a strong sense on culture and identity. These were strong moral values, having men as the breadwinner and women as housewives and believing getting a job is more important than having an education. The traditional working class also saw the labour party as the party for the working class as it represented their interests, as pointed out in item B. Although now many people in the working class vote for different parties as they don’t all agree on what is important now in society, supporting the idea that traditional class identities are no longer important. Now also the manufacturing business as changed a lot, this means now they aren’t the same jobs available as they would have been before as they have been replaced with things such as machines that can do a faster and cheaper job. Therefore the working class has had to change the sort of jobs they do over time which may be a reason for the change in characteristics, and therefore making the traditional class identities now no longer important. Diamond and Giddens agree with this as they argue that the working class is no longer important because of the change in the economy that as lead to the decline of manual labour jobs, and that the working class isn’t now the only class which experiences economic and social eprivation. The new working class is now seen to have little loyalty to others within the same class, more emphasis on customer goods, high levels of home ownership, and women likely to be employed. There is also now a larger section of the working class, this may be down to some working class jobs now becoming more skilful therefore getting higher pay, which others become less skilful and get lower pay, meaning people in the same class may identify themselves every differently. However there are sociologists that believe traditional class identities are still very important, for example Marxists. They believe social class is still hugely influential in shaping our identities. They also believe social class is identified by your income, and that leisure wouldn’t define your identity as you would need the disposable income to afford it. The British Attitudes Survey supported this idea, because in 2007 it found still 94% of people still identified themselves with a social class, whereas only 6% didn’t. Overall the importance of traditional class identities are seen every differently by different people. Views which agree and disagree to the importance of traditional class identities still being important have both positives and negatives so it’s hard to just believe one view point is the truth and the other doesn’t matter. Therefore I believe both viewpoints have sufficient evidence and that traditional class identities are still important to an extent, however now there is also other factors that can make up our identity other than just our social class. Assess the View That Traditional Class Identities These groups are the working class, middle class and upper class. However now some believe there isn’t this social class division within society and that everyone is equal. People that would agree traditional class identities are no longer important are postmodernists. These have the view that class no longer really matters in modern Britain and that now people no longer identify themselves according to their class background. Clarke and Saunders (1991) would agree with the view of postmodernists. They suggest that classes have become fragmented into many different groups and now they have been replaced with other influences such as gender and lifestyles. Although they is some evidence which suggests these ideas are exaggerated. Marshall’s survey into how people view themselves showed people still see social class as a source of identity. The traditional working class was a group of people that was developed after the industrialisation when they were need for large amounts of manual workers. This group formed a strong sense on culture and identity. These were strong moral values, having men as the breadwinner and women as housewives and believing getting a job is more important than having an education. The traditional working class also saw the labour party as the party for the working class as it represented their interests, as pointed out in item B. Although now many people in the working class vote for different parties as they don’t all agree on what is important now in society, supporting the idea that traditional class identities are no longer important. Now also the manufacturing business as changed a lot, this means now they aren’t the same jobs available as they would have been before as they have been replaced with things such as machines that can do a faster and cheaper job. Therefore the working class has had to change the sort of jobs they do over time which may be a reason for the change in characteristics, and therefore making the traditional class identities now no longer important. Diamond and Giddens agree with this as they argue that the working class is no longer important because of the change in the economy that as lead to the decline of manual labour jobs, and that the working class isn’t now the only class which experiences economic and social eprivation. The new working class is now seen to have little loyalty to others within the same class, more emphasis on customer goods, high levels of home ownership, and women likely to be employed. There is also now a larger section of the working class, this may be down to some working class jobs now becoming more skilful therefore getting higher pay, which others become less skilful and get lower pay, meaning people in the same class may identify themselves every differently. However there are sociologists that believe traditional class identities are still very important, for example Marxists. They believe social class is still hugely influential in shaping our identities. They also believe social class is identified by your income, and that leisure wouldn’t define your identity as you would need the disposable income to afford it. The British Attitudes Survey supported this idea, because in 2007 it found still 94% of people still identified themselves with a social class, whereas only 6% didn’t. Overall the importance of traditional class identities are seen every differently by different people. Views which agree and disagree to the importance of traditional class identities still being important have both positives and negatives so it’s hard to just believe one view point is the truth and the other doesn’t matter. Therefore I believe both viewpoints have sufficient evidence and that traditional class identities are still important to an extent, however now there is also other factors that can make up our identity other than just our social class.

China is one of the Main Countries that Export Their Goods to the Essay

China is one of the Main Countries that Export Their Goods to the United States - Essay Example Putting tariffs on the goods from China to the United States has been one of the most controversial debates. There has been a section of the society that have insisted on the importance of, and urgency with which goods from China should be subjected to tariffs. However, another section has warned of possible repercussions should this policy be implemented. This paper seeks to defend the decision to put tariff on tires from China. China remains the main threat to the economy of the United States. This is because it is taking up the markets that were previously a preserve for the United States. It has come up with cheap products in the world market because they have reduced cost of production due to cheap labor in their home country. This has seen them acquire various markets in the world, including the market in the United States. As Sandwick (56) says, although it is good to encourage competition within the economy in order to facilitate fair trade, some competitions are obviously un fair. This scholar points out to the fact that in the process of facilitating fair trade, care should be taken to ensure that none of the players have an unfair advantage over others. The tires from China have been made using very cheap labor back in the parent country. When they are brought to the United States, they come with prices that reflect the cost of labor. There are other firms within the United States producing the same products locally with the cost of labor being much higher than that in China. This local US firm will also bring their products to the American market taking into account the cost of production. When the two competitors meet in the same market, the Chinese firms will have an unfair advantage over other firms. Their prices will definitely be more attractive than those of the local firms. This will result in a situation where these foreign firms will cannibalize the local firms. They would take the largest share of the local market, and due to frustration, t he local firms would be forced out of the market, or be absorbed by the foreign firm. It can be very unfortunate when a foreign firm drives out the local firms from the market. The situation is worsened by the fact that these local firms cannot export to China because back in China, the prices would even be lower and these American firms would need to incur transport and other costs. Other markets around the world have also been taken by these Chinese firms with very cheap products. This would completely eliminate the local firms from the market, a fact that can lead to serious pressure on the economy. Some individuals have argued that China is one of the main countries where the United States exports their products. These pundits argue that by imposing tariffs on the Chinese goods, the Chinese government may respond by imposing the same on the American products coming to their country, a fact that would reduce profits of the American exporters. Although this argument is very valid, a mathematical calculation would still point out that the US stands to lose if the tariffs are not imposed. This is because Chinese export to the US is fast outgrowing its imports from the US. This is even worsened by the fact that the Chinese exports are so cheap, thereby posing serious threats to the US firms. It is a fact that by imposing a tax, the US exporters may feel the pinch. However, it would protect the local firms; hence protecting the local economy from a possible wipeout by the Chinese firms. Rollin argues that

Employee Motivation in the Management Field of Google Inc Case Study

Employee Motivation in the Management Field of Google Inc - Case Study Example Mansar and Reijers (2007) reckon that management in an organization should ensure effective communication, employee motivation, and alignment of employee activities to the achievement of the organization’s objectives. This can be construed to mean that management is not the handling of machines/automated program, but handling humans through communication, and an assenting enterprise endeavor. This paper seeks to elucidate on an issue of employee motivation in the management field. This will be achieved by conducting a case study on one of the largest corporation in the world (Google) while linking management theories to management practices in that corporation. Google is an American conglomerate, which specializes in providing internet-based services such as search engine service, cloud computing, manufacture and sale of software, as well as online marketing services. Most of Google’s profits come from Ad-Words. Its hasty growth since incorporation has elicited production of a series of merchandises, multiple acquisitions, and mergers. As a result, Google is one of the corporations with the largest employee base in the world of around 37,000 in 40 countries. Contemporary conglomerates are relentlessly coming up with new management techniques to acquire top talent, keep hold of that top talent, and come up with imaginative ways to keep them motivated so as to achieve paramount productivity in their respective industries. This essay investigates how Google Inc uses management techniques to motivate its employees to become top-producing individuals who can formulate preeminent ideas and products. The essay will explore how Google Inc has structured its management so as to endow its employees with the best environment and how it motivates them with intrinsic and extrinsic techniques.  

Assignment Two Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words - 1

Assignment Two - Essay Example The quality of the images of the DVD player is outstanding possibly because the LCD screen has very good resolution. One of the main reasons I purchased the item was because I do not own a smartphone, thus I needed a device to watch movies when I am outside my home. I was very impressed by the fact that the Coby portable DVD had a two year warranty with the manufacturer. My impression of the product after the purchase is that the Coby portable DVD player is a quality product that served my need to be able to watch movies on the road. Due to my experience with this DVD player in the future I plan on purchasing more products from the Coby brand. The company has quality products at good prices. I have been using my portable DVD player on a weekly basis. I always travel with the portable DVD player in my car. I showed the Coby portable DVD player to several of my friends and they liked it. Last month I purchased an Xbox 360 for $299.99. The video game industry generated $15.6 billion in the United States in 2010 (Plunkettresearchonline, 2011). The reason that I purchased the Xbox 360 was because I did not have a gaming console at my home. I am not a gamer, but I wanted to have a good gaming console to play with friends when they visited. I got a good deal on the Xbox 360 because it included the Kinect system which allows people to play games hand free. When I read about the Xbox Kinect I wanted it in order acquire games that allow you to perform exercises at home using the system. I am very satisfied with my purchase because the Xbox 360 has improved my entertainment options at home. When I was making the buy decision I choose the Xbox 360 over the Playstation 3 or Wii consoles because the Xbox 360 seemed to have a greater variety of games. I also noticed in my trips to gaming stores that there seemed to be more used games available for the Xbox 360 than other console s. This was very important to me because I do not plan on purchasing any new

SIMS Review Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 1250 words

SIMS Review - Essay Example As these discounts are likely to be provided on several years terms, it is impossible to eliminate the cash shortage problem by changing these discount immediately. This measure would affect the quality of the patient care in the hospital and make it lose even more money. The company must try to cut down the variable costs of the company which are usually subject to economies of scale. Up to certain point the marginal cost of providing extra unit of care is less than the average cost and thus the company should try to achieve the optimal level of servicing clients and try to cut down the variable costs. The second problem was estimated as giving nurses too high wages as the need for acute nurses was not met. If the increased wages were due to the fact that there was need for such services, this choice cannot also be eliminated and the staff should not be downsized. On the other hand, the best strategy would be to downsize the agency staff costs which are not directly associated to providing care services and thus must be at the optimal level. The agency staff hiring that the optimal number needed for successful hospital operation was estimated wrong and must be revalued as agency or contract staff is usually paid twice as much as regular workers for the same amount of utility they bring to the hospital. The third problem was low medical reimbursement levels which amounted to 70% charged to clients. As the hospital derives approximately 40% of its' revenues from Medicare patients this is a big loss for the company and this reveals that the staff hired to work in this direction is not performing efficiently thus resulting in working capital shortage. As the Medicare payments cannot be changed directly by the hospital and are set based on historical costs, the company can eliminate this problem only by providing efficient system of monitoring in time receiving these payments. The company has also experienced dramatic growth in current liabilities which mean that the company was spending a lot even though no major purchases for the company were made. This means that the hospital is not allocating resources efficiently. The next problem was estimated as unused equipment in patients' rooms which means some strategic mistakes which lead to purchasing this equipment but now it is not used. Together with reducing agency staff expenses the second strategy was chosen to reduce the staff benefits which include health insurance, retirement, salary increases above the market salaries, different bonuses and paid leave benefits. This can be a bad strategy in the long term as the best doctors can leave the hospital but the optimal choice would be to reduce these benefits for the newcomers to the hospital and reward those who add the highest value to the hospital services quality. This will on the other hand give incentives to newcomers to work harder to achieve higher rewards. This will generate sufficient cash flows for the hospital in the short term and will not affect the customer services quality hypothetically and slightly. These two measures of cost reduction will save the company $4,717,000 while the hospital has savings goal of $900,000 and is expected to receive over $2,300,000 in three months that is why it has to generate some cash until

Information system Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 2000 words - 1

Information system - Essay Example During his visit, he met Nandan Nilekani, then CEO of Infosys, one of India’s major IT companies and after one such meeting with him understood how world has become a â€Å"level playing field† and thus flatter. â€Å"Alas, I encountered the flattening of the world quite by accident†¦I was visiting the Indian high-tech capital, Bangalore†¦At one point, summing up the implications of all this, Nilekani uttered a phrase that rang in my ear†¦Tom, the playing field is being leveled.† (Friedman 2005). Globalization in hand with technology particularly IT has first ‘flattened’ the competitive field in IT sector and in other business sectors, secondly, made geographical boundaries invisible and thirdly, aided many Third World countries to elevate their economic status. So, this paper will critically analyze these IS centric arguments of Friedman using the principles of Information needs of organizations and Socio-technical systems Friedman divides globalization into three historical phases and also points out the key force which influenced globalization in each phase, and how the world became smaller after each phase. He terms the first phase as Globalization 1.0 and states that starting from the year 1492 and till 1800, the world shrunk from a large size to a medium size, with the mindset of people of those times to discover new places, search for places with resources and imperialistic tendencies, acting as the influencing force. Then, Globalization 2.0 was visible from 1800 to 2000, during which companies due to opening up of markets by various countries and importantly due to advancement of technologies, started globalizing and accessing new countries, thereby reducing the size of the world even further. Finally, Friedman writes about Globalization 3.0, which started around 2000 and is still continuing with more development. He states that in this present

Cannabis Industry Leadership Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 750 words

Cannabis Industry Leadership - Essay Example From the study it is clear that Ethan Nadelmann is among the individuals who are enforcing moves towards marijuana legalization. He serves as the Drug Policy Alliance administrative director. He stipulates that the government should not interfere with the activities of those individuals who use marijuana. Nadelmann has for about two decades has adopted reforms that influence deliberate awareness, arguing that the fight against cruel laws on drugs is not only about fighting for the rights of individuals that use drugs. He also targets popular substances such as marijuana. The move targets fighting against the overreach actin exercised by the federal government hence end the pointless drug ban among humans. As the report explores legalization of marijuana was a neglected issue 20 years ago before the Nadelmann’s entry to the field. At this period, only criminal growers participated in the practice by issuing leaflets in various shows to demand the government to stop interfering with the marijuana industry. Presently, however, the efforts that Nadelmann has put forth have led to the legalization of cannabis in two states, while it is used for medicinal purposes in an additional 16 states. Nadelmann is also an influential policy entrepreneur who targets any issue affecting domestic matters. The major force that drove Nadelmann to support the legalization of marijuana was the idea that drug abuse was considered a crisis in the public health field.

Interviewed Couple Essay Example for Free

Interviewed Couple Essay The family is regarded as the basic unit of society and as such, good parenting is important in order to strengthen the family as an institution. Nevertheless, the situation of every family is different. There are important factors such as age, cultural, background, financial stability, etc. that must be carefully considered in assessing the parenting style in every family. Being the case, it is necessary that the situation of families are given due importance and the most effective way to be able to understand parenting styles is through the face-to-face interaction with parents. In relation to this, Henry and Tanya Pietrkowski were interviewed when it comes to parenting their daughter, Sophia. The interviewees are Henry and Tanya Pietrkowski who are the parents of a 14 years old teenager. The first part of the interview is about the family background of the couple that involves their respective ethnicity and religion. Tanya has a German-Jewish and Russian Jewish ethnicity. She pointed out that there was a conflict between the German and Russian sides of her family. She grew up in a small town Georgia wherein Jews are regarded as a minority. On the other hand, Henry came from a family of first-generation American Jewish. His parents emigrated from Poland and were Holocaust survivors. Henry grew up in the north side of Chicago. In this part of the interview, the ethnicity and religious background of the couple is given importance because the place and way by which they grew up have a substantial effect in their corresponding beliefs and values about parenting (McDermott 4). In addition, through the conversation of the interviewer with the couple it was established that their ancestors were immigrants from other countries and regarded as a minority in the American society. Tanya even explicitly stated that she experienced living in a small town in Georgia wherein Jews are a minority. In terms of parenting, the cultural background of the parents is important, especially when it comes to dealing with teachers that will be responsible in educating their children. The parents and the teachers should be able to understand each other in terms of cultural context in order for them to properly guide the education and behavior of the child (McDermott 4). The interview with the couple also gives emphasis with the respective lessons that they learn from their parents regarding parenting. The couple explained that their parents veered away from the parenting styles of their grandparents because the latter experienced a very difficult childhood, which is why in the case of Tanya, her parents chose to live in Georgia so that she will not experience the difficulties that they went through. Both the parents of the couple are disciplinarians. Nevertheless, they were still able to maximize their skills and talents even though their parents are not financial stable. Tanya’s father was an art professor, which make it easier for her to develop her singing, running, debating, and other skills because her father provided her with private lessons with his colleagues in the academe. Tanya’s father exemplified the ability of parents to give the necessary their children by means of supporting their interests, which eventually served as a huge help in maximizing their potentials as individuals (Heath 316). Unfortunately, Tanya admitted that her parents were not able to address the issues that they have during their childhood, which makes it difficult for them to instill the necessary values to her and her brother. Furthermore, Tanya and her mother also have disagreements on the way Tanya raised her daughter, especially when it comes to financial matters and the values that she teach her daughter. The problem of Tanya’s parents in teaching values to their children is brought about by unresolved childhood issues, which is discussed by Erik Erikson in the stages of development. Tanya’s parents were not able to properly go through the different stages of development, which is why their unresolved childhood issues still affects their parenting style (Elkind 9). Moreover, the disagreement between Tanya and her mother is also caused by the failure of the mother to properly develop into an adult that has the necessary financial stability and value fulfillment (Newman and Newman 317). The second part of the interview involves the conversation about the marriage of the couple and their decision to conceive a child. Based on the answer of the couple, they were only 13 months married when Tanya became pregnant. The couple already acknowledges the idea that they will become parents but they did not expect that it will happen very soon. However, even though the child came very early in their marriage the couple was able to fulfill their respective dreams of being married first and having a stable job before having a baby. In this situation, the couple was individually fulfilled before having a baby, which is essential in their growth process as adults and eventually has a good effect in their parenting (Simon and Lambert 91). The last part of the interview is about the parenting of the couple. It is clearly observable that the couple also wants the best for their daughter, in terms of her living a better life as compared to them. The couple has their own parenting style that is different from their parents because their experienced taught them their parents lack the necessary tending in the way they were raised (Taylor 34). Moreover, the couple also moved to a part of Chicago that has Jewish community in order for their daughter not to feel isolated. They also enrolled their daughter to a Jewish school in order for her to have a strong Jewish faith unlike them. The couple admitted that they do not have any specific parenting style for their daughter wherein they did not establish any parenting roles of rules that their daughter need to follow. The couple just goes with the flow of parenting but they believed that they were able to raise their children well because they listen to her, which is important in parenting. The couple advised other parents that the right way of parenting is by trusting one’s instinct, which is actually true in the most current studies that there is â€Å"no single recipe for successful parenting† because every family have different issues, backgrounds, beliefs, and values that must be considered in identifying the right parenting style (Maccoby 451).

Antimicrobial Activity of Oil Extract from Marang Seeds

Antimicrobial Activity of Oil Extract from Marang Seeds Antimicrobial Activity of Oil Extract from Marang Seeds (Artocarpus odoratissimus)  against Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus epidermidis Introduction Essential oils are widely gaining interest a component in medicinal products, food industry and pharmaceutical industry. Many studies were conducted to identify the antimicrobial, antifungal and insecticidal activities of essential oils obtained from plants. Essential oils have many therapeutic activities and they aid the distribution of drugs and antiseptics. Furthermore, the testing of plant extracts for its antimicrobial activity has always been of great attention to scientists looking for new sources for drugs for the treatment of various diseases (Nagala et al., 2013). Antimicrobial Compounds from Plants Phenols According to Cetin-Karaca (2011), phenolic compounds are one of the most diverse groups of secondary metabolites found in edible plants. They are found in a wide variety of fruits, vegetables, nuts, seeds, stems and flowers. There are different classes of polyphenols known as tannins, lignins and flavonoids. Cinnamic and caffeic acids are common representatives of a wide group of phenylpropane-derived compounds which are in the highest oxidation state. Herbs such as tarragon and thyme both contain caffeic acid that is effective against viruses, bacteria and fungi. Catechol and pyrogallol both are hydroxylated phenols, shown to be toxic to microorganisms. Catechol has two 2OH groups, and pyrogallol has three. The site(s) and number of hydroxyl groups on the phenol group are thought to be related to their relative toxicity to microorganisms, with evidence that increased hydroxylation results in increased toxicity (Cowan, 1999). Flavonoids Flavonoids are the most widely occurring polyphenol and are present in almost every form of human consumed vegetation. Flavonoids are potent antioxidants, free radical scavengers and metal chelators; they inhibit lipid peroxidation and exhibit various physiological activities including anti-inflammatory, anti-allergic, anti-carcinogenic, anti-hypertensive, anti-arthritic and antimicrobial activities (Cetin-Karaca, 2011). Flavonoids are also hydroxylated phenolic substances but occur as a C6-C3 unit linked to an aromatic ring. Since they are known to be synthesized by plants in response to microbial infection, it should not be surprising that they have been found in vitro to be effective antimicrobial substances against a wide array of microorganisms. Catechins, the most reduced form of the C3 unit in flavonoid compounds, have been extensively researched due to their occurrence in oolong green teas. It was noticed some time ago that teas exerted antimicrobial activity and that they contain a mixture of catechin compounds. These compounds inhibited in vitro Vibrio cholerae, Streptococcus mutans, Shigella and other bacteria and microorganisms (Cowan, 1999). Plant Extracts as Potential Antibacterial Agents Numerous studies investigated about the antimicrobial activity of plant extracts against a great number of bacterial species. Plant extracts were prepared from fresh or dried plant material using conventional extraction methods (Soxhlet extraction, maceration, percolation). Extraction is process of separation of active compounds from plant material using different solvents. During extraction, solvents diffuse into the plant material and solubilise compounds with similar polarity. At the end of the extraction, solvents have been evaporated, so that an extract is a concentrated mixture of plant active compounds. Successful extraction is largely dependent on the type of solvent used in the extraction procedure. Water extracts and extracts from organic solvents such as methanol, ethanol, acetone and chloroform are usually used. Diffusion and dilution method are two types of susceptibility test used to determine the antibacterial efficacy of plant extracts. Diffusion method is a qualitati ve test which allows classification of bacteria as susceptible or resistant to the tested plant extract according to size of diameter of the zone of inhibition. In dilution method, the activity of plant extracts is determined as Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC). MIC is defined as the lowest concentration able to inhibit bacterial growth (Stefanovic, et al., 2012). Marang (Artocarpus odoratissimus) Artocarpus odoratissimus is also known as Marang, Johey oak or Tarap which is a tropical fruit tree native to Asia. It belongs to the Moraceae family and is closely related to Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) and breadfruit (Artocarpus comminis). It originated in Borneo and has been introduced into neighbouring countries, including the Philippines, Malaysia and Thailand. It is an evergreen tree, which can grow up to 25 m tall and has a 40 cm diameter trunk with low buttresses. The leaves are broadly elliptic to obovate at around 16to 50cm long and 11to 28cmwide. They are cuneated at base to slightly decurrent, margin entire or shallowly crenate, and apex blunt or shortly acuminate. It is a monoecious plant so one plant is enough for the production of fruit. The fruit is green, ovoid in shape, quite large, averaging about 16 cm in length, 13 cm in diameter and weighing about 1 kg (KPR Gardeners Club, 2009). It is roundish oblong, regular, and thickly studded with short, brittle, g reenish yellow spines. The rind is thick and fleshy. The flesh is snowy white, very sweet when ripe, juicy and very aromatic. The flesh is separated into segments clinging to the central core and each segment contains a seed. The seeds are many, whitish, 8 Ãâ€" 15 mm in size, smooth surfaced and readily separated from the flesh (Subhadrabandhu, 2001). Escherichia coli Escherichia coliis the most prevalent infecting organism in the family of gram-negative bacteria known as enterobacteriaceae.E. coli is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium propelled by long, rapidly rotating flagella. Escherichia colibacteria were discovered in the human colon in 1885 by German bacteriologist Theodor Escherich. Dr. Escherich also showed that certain strains of the bacterium were responsible for infant diarrhea and gastroenteritis, an important public health discovery. AlthoughE. coli bacteria were initially called Bacterium coli, the name was later changed toEscherichia colito honor its discoverer (Clark, 2005). It is part of the normal flora of the mouth and gut and helps protect the intestinal tract from bacterial infection, aids in digestion, and produces small amounts of vitamins B12 and K. The bacterium, which is also found in soil and water, is widely used in laboratory research and is said to be the most thoroughly studied life form (The Columbia Electronic Encyclopedia, 2012). Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus epidermidis belongs to the genus Staphylococcus, and they are facultative anaerobes (Wiedemer, 2012). Staphylococcus epidermidis is a well characterized, non-fastidious, and it is a gram positive bacteria. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a coagulase – negative staphylococcus (CNS) they are found and colonizes the skin and the mucous membranes of the human body and they play an important part of it normal flora (Sousa et al., 2008). These species of staphylococcus secretes and produces a biofilm of polysaccharides that protects the cell against the host immune system or antibiotic treatments (Schjorring et al., 2002). These staphylococci are mainly dispersed during skin to skin contact using medical instruments and procedures. Staphylococcus epidermidis can cause infections in humans like meningitis, urinary tract infection (UTI) conjunctivitis, and endocarditis (Wiedemer, 2012). Bibliography Cetin-Karaca, H. (2011). Evaluation of Natural Antimicrobial Phenolic Compounds Against Foodborne Pathogens. University of Kentucky Masters Theses.Paper 652. Retrieved from http://uknowledge.uky.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1163context=gradschool_theses Clark, M. (2005). E. coli Food Poisoning: What is E. coli and how does it cause food poisoning? About E. coli. Retrieved from http://www.about-ecoli.com/. Retrieved on July 15, 2014. Cowan, M. (1999). Plant Products as Antimicrobial Agents. Clinical Microbiology Reviews Oct. 1999, p. 564–582. Retrieved from http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC88925/pdf/cm000564.pdf?origin=publication_detail KPR Gardeners Club. (2009). Breadfruit Artocarpus odoratissimus, Marang. Botanix – A Journal About Plants and Gardening. Retrieved from http://www.botanix.kpr.eu/en/index.php?text=6-breadfruit-artocarpus-odoratissimus-marang Nagala, S., Yekula, M. Tamanam, R. (2013). Antioxidant and gas chromatographic analysis of à ¯Ã‚ ¬Ã‚ ve varieties of jackfruit (Artocarpus) seed oils. Drug Invention Today 5 (2013) 315-320. Retrieved from http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0975761913000616 Schjorring, S., Ramos, A., Fraustrup, H., Hallin, P.F. (2002). Pathogenic investigation of Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis. Technical University of Denmark. Retrieved from http://www.cbs.dtu.dk/~pfh/files/mrsa.pdf Sousa,C., Teixeira, P. Oliveira, R. (2008). Influence of surface properties on the adhesion of Staphylococcus epidermidis to Acrylic and Silicone. International Journal of Biomaterials Volume2009(2009), Article ID718017, 9 pages doi:10.1155/2009/718017. Retrieved from http://www.hindawi.com/journals/ijbm/2009/718017/ Subhadrabandhu, S. (2001). Under-Utilized Tropical Fruits of Thailand. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations Regiona Office for Asia and the Pacific. Retrieved from http://www.fao.org/3/a-ab777e.pdf Stefanovic, et al. (2012). Antibacterial Activity of Naturally Occurring Compounds from Selected Plants. ISBN: 978-953-51-0723-1, InTech, DOI: 10.5772/33059. Retrieved from http://cdn.intechopen.com/pdfs/38642.pdf The Columbia Electronic Encyclopedia. (2012). Escherichia coli. Infoplease.com. Retrieved from http://www.infoplease.com/encyclopedia/science/escherichia-coli.html Wiedemer, C. (2012). Microbiology Unknown Lab Report. CPR St. Louis. Retrieved from http://aclsstlouis.com/3961/microbiology-unknown-lab-reports/

Essay --

BBPB2103 PENGURUSAN SUMBER MANUSIA Name : Vivi Sabrina binti mohamad Matric Number : 880605135214001 NRIC : 880605135214 Telephone : 014 8994208 E-mail address : Ketimau_jawak@yahoo.com.my Tutor’s name : Encik Dennis Ujoh Learning Centre : Sibu Learning Centre ISI KANDUNGAN KANDUNGAN MUKA SURAT 1.0 PENGENALAN 3 - 6 ï  ¶ JABATAN KEMAS DAERAH MATU DARO 2.0 PENGENALAN MODEL HACKMAN DAN OLDHAM 7 – 10 3.0 PENGENALAN TERHADAP TERAS KERJA DIMENSI 11 - 12 DAN TAHAP PEMIKIRAN YANG WUJUD DALAM SETIAP PERINGKAT PEKERJAAN ï  ¶ JABATAN KEMAS DAERAH MATU DARO 3.1 PERINGKAT PENGURUSAN ATASAN 3.2 PERINGKAT PENGURUSAN PERTENGAHAN 3.3 PERINGKAT PENGURUSAN BAWAHAN 4.0 CADANGAN BAGAIMANA KERJA DIMENSI TERAS (CJD) 13 - 15 BOLEH DIPERBAIKI UNTUK MENINGKATKAN TAHAP PSIKOLOGI KRITIKAL PEKERJA 4.1 MENGUBAH GAYA KEPIMPINAN 4.2 MENCORAK ATAU MENGUBAH CARA BEKERJA 4.3 AMALKAN BEKERJA DALAM KUMPULAN ATAU BERPASUKAN 4.4 KEPIMPINAN TRANSFORMASI 5.0 PENUTUP 16 - 17 RUJUKAN 1.0 PENGENALAN Rajah 1 : logo KEMAS Jabatan Kemajuan Masyarakat (KEMAS) tentunya tidak asing lagi bagi rakyat di Malaysia ini. Apabila terdengar perkataan KEMAS, tentunya terlintas di minda kita tentang prasekolah, tabika, kelas bimbingan orang-orang tua, kelas bimbingan kesejahteraan keluarga dan wanita, kelas bimbingan bina insan dan sebagainya. Melalui kelas prasekolah dan tabika, jabatan ini memainkan peranan yang sangat penting iaitu mendidik serta membimbing kanak-kanak supaya menjadi modal insan yang berguna serta permata negara yang harus digilap untuk kesejahteraan negara pada masa hadapan.Untuk mendidik serta membimbing masyarakat lain, pentadbiran di peringkat akar umbinya haruslah... ...a kepimpinan yang positif seharusnya dapat memberikan ciri kerja yang positif. (2590 patah perkataan.) RUJUKAN http://digilib.itb.ac.id/files/disk1/631/jbptitbpp-gdl-estiwuland-31515-2-2008ts-1.pdf http://zaini802856.blogspot.com/2011/11/reka-bentuk-kerja.html http://www.tsm.ac.id/JBA/JBA13.1April2011/1_artikel_jba13.1April2011.pdf http://eprints.utm.my/1436/1/JT37E%5B5%5D.pdf http://anggriana246.blogspot.com/2012/03/desain-pekerjaan.html http://www.psychologymania.com/2013/07/pengertian-karakteristik-pekerjaan.html http://www.jpa.gov.my/docs/spp/2011/spp142011.pdf http://forum.kompas.com/teras/47848-7-cara-mengembangkan-kreativitas-diri.html http://www.infinita-consulting.com/component/content/article/37-psikologi-industri/88-3-cara-meningkatkan-kepuasan-kerja-dan-team-work http://dedylondong.blogspot.com/2011/11/kepuasan-kerja-job-satisfaction.html

I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings Essay -- Maya Angelou

In the novel I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings, by Maya Angelou goes from a little southern black girl who wishes to be a â€Å"a long and blonde haired, light-blue eyed, white girl†, to a very mature young adult that is proud of her race. Throughout ’s (Maya’s) life she goes through many difficulties and triumphs. Some of which a person could never imagine of going through. Maya goes from being a very shy and strange black girl, to a certain and self-confident young woman. In I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings, by Maya Angelou, has to deal with prejudice, rape, and also the issues of abandonment in her course of becoming a mature woman. I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings takes place in the 1930s to the 1940s. During this time period Blacks were discriminated against. Being a child in this period, Maya experiences how difficult life is with prejudice people. For example, with all the discrimination going on, Maya wishes to be a white girl. She says â€Å"Wouldn’t they be surprised when one day I woke out of my black ugly dream, and my real hair, which was long and blond, would take the place of the kinky mass that Momma wouldn’t let me straighten? My light-blue eyes were going to hypnotize them.....Then they would understand why I had never picked up a Southern accent, or spoke the common slang, and why I had to be forced to eat pigs’ tails and snouts. Because I was really white and because a cruel fairy stepmother, who was understandably jealous of my beauty, had turned me into a too-big Negro girl, with nappy black hair, broad feet and a space between her teeth†. She experiences how mean an d harsh white people are to the black people. For example, Maya saw her grandmother â€Å"Momma† be insulted by a bunch of â€Å"powitetrash† kids. They were making fun of how she was standing on the front porch and how she was humming Church songs. After getting bored of mocking her, one of the girls had revealed herself to Momma. Throughout the whole episode Momma stood straight and stiff and kept humming her Hymns. This showed Maya that a black person doesn’t have to always react to what white people say or do towards them. Being strong and showing that a person is not afraid is the best thing to do when being harassed. Momma also contributes to Maya’s maturing by Maya starts to take pride in her race even with all the prejudice. Momma stands up and speaks out to the white dentist, which was... ...a lesbian or not. So, without help from her mother she goes to the first guy she sees and has sex with him. If her mother had not let her alone and guided her through this problem she would never had done this. In doing this she becomes pregnant. This is when Maya really matures and learns that she must grow up. Without any guidance through her life she never knew the difference between right or wrong. All the times that she was abandoned or not guided through her childhood resulted in her getting pregnant. If Maya was never abandoned from her parents and other people then maybe she would have never made these bad choices. During this time period and living in the South, it makes Maya’s life difficult to experience. She grows up very fast and learns about things that a normal child or teenager would not know at this time. She matures quickly by the discriminations, her rape, and being abandoned throughout her childhood. As a teenager, Maya seems to be an older woman becaus e of all the difficulties and the triumphs that she has gone through. Today, kids are growing up very quickly, and they need the help of adults and examples from adults to understand what’s going on around them. I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings Essay -- Maya Angelou In the novel I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings, by Maya Angelou goes from a little southern black girl who wishes to be a â€Å"a long and blonde haired, light-blue eyed, white girl†, to a very mature young adult that is proud of her race. Throughout ’s (Maya’s) life she goes through many difficulties and triumphs. Some of which a person could never imagine of going through. Maya goes from being a very shy and strange black girl, to a certain and self-confident young woman. In I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings, by Maya Angelou, has to deal with prejudice, rape, and also the issues of abandonment in her course of becoming a mature woman. I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings takes place in the 1930s to the 1940s. During this time period Blacks were discriminated against. Being a child in this period, Maya experiences how difficult life is with prejudice people. For example, with all the discrimination going on, Maya wishes to be a white girl. She says â€Å"Wouldn’t they be surprised when one day I woke out of my black ugly dream, and my real hair, which was long and blond, would take the place of the kinky mass that Momma wouldn’t let me straighten? My light-blue eyes were going to hypnotize them.....Then they would understand why I had never picked up a Southern accent, or spoke the common slang, and why I had to be forced to eat pigs’ tails and snouts. Because I was really white and because a cruel fairy stepmother, who was understandably jealous of my beauty, had turned me into a too-big Negro girl, with nappy black hair, broad feet and a space between her teeth†. She experiences how mean an d harsh white people are to the black people. For example, Maya saw her grandmother â€Å"Momma† be insulted by a bunch of â€Å"powitetrash† kids. They were making fun of how she was standing on the front porch and how she was humming Church songs. After getting bored of mocking her, one of the girls had revealed herself to Momma. Throughout the whole episode Momma stood straight and stiff and kept humming her Hymns. This showed Maya that a black person doesn’t have to always react to what white people say or do towards them. Being strong and showing that a person is not afraid is the best thing to do when being harassed. Momma also contributes to Maya’s maturing by Maya starts to take pride in her race even with all the prejudice. Momma stands up and speaks out to the white dentist, which was... ...a lesbian or not. So, without help from her mother she goes to the first guy she sees and has sex with him. If her mother had not let her alone and guided her through this problem she would never had done this. In doing this she becomes pregnant. This is when Maya really matures and learns that she must grow up. Without any guidance through her life she never knew the difference between right or wrong. All the times that she was abandoned or not guided through her childhood resulted in her getting pregnant. If Maya was never abandoned from her parents and other people then maybe she would have never made these bad choices. During this time period and living in the South, it makes Maya’s life difficult to experience. She grows up very fast and learns about things that a normal child or teenager would not know at this time. She matures quickly by the discriminations, her rape, and being abandoned throughout her childhood. As a teenager, Maya seems to be an older woman becaus e of all the difficulties and the triumphs that she has gone through. Today, kids are growing up very quickly, and they need the help of adults and examples from adults to understand what’s going on around them.

Hollywood and Nathaniel Wests The Day of the Locust Essay -- Nathanie

Hollywood and Nathaniel West's The Day of the Locust Works Cited Missing Although set in the 1930s, Nathanael West’s The Day of the Locust ironically resembles contemporary Hollywood. Within the glamorous setting of Hollywood, West’s characters take on multiple roles instead of assuming individual personalities. They put on and remove these imaginary personality masks, similar to those in the Commedia dell’Arte, to exhibit a range of emotions that only their character type would exhibit. Consequently, West’s characters are trapped in this restrictive atmosphere, especially at the end of the novel when they become part of a collective mob. In these manners, the characters in The Day of the Locust exhibit qualities akin to modern actors, proving that they are nothing more than a cast of personages rather than individuals. Hollywood is not simply a point on a map; it is a representation of the human experience. As with any other location, though, Hollywood’s history can be traced and analyzed up to present day. In 1887, Harvey Henderson Wilcox established a 120-acre ranch in an area northwest of Los Angeles, naming it â€Å"Hollywood† (Basinger 15). From then on, Hollywood grew from one man’s family to over 5,000 people in 1910. By then, residents around the ranch incorporated it as a municipality, using the name Hollywood for their village. While they voted to become part of the Los Angeles district, their village was also attracting motion-picture companies drawn in by the diverse geography of the mountains and oceanside (15). The Los Angeles area continues to flourish, now containing over nine million people, an overwhelming statistic compared to Wilcox’s original, family unit (U.S. Census Bureau 1). However, these facts only s... ...ic category. Instead, they have the freedom to shift between different roles and characters. In West’s The Day of the Locust, the characters exhibit traits most closely linked to these new types of Hollywood actors. Although he introduces them as types, he develops them throughout the novel with variable personalities. Todd’s emotions, for example, towards Faye range from sweetly romantic to vindictively dangerous. Yet, these variable personalities do not prove individuality, as the characters can all be labeled as characters, just like all actors are just actors at the end of every movie no matter what role they play. Unfortunately, West’s characters can never escape their fixed roles and established places in the narrative despite how often they attempt to change. They are forever stuck as modern actors in a 1930s Hollywood setting, and therein lies their tragedy. Hollywood and Nathaniel West's The Day of the Locust Essay -- Nathanie Hollywood and Nathaniel West's The Day of the Locust Works Cited Missing Although set in the 1930s, Nathanael West’s The Day of the Locust ironically resembles contemporary Hollywood. Within the glamorous setting of Hollywood, West’s characters take on multiple roles instead of assuming individual personalities. They put on and remove these imaginary personality masks, similar to those in the Commedia dell’Arte, to exhibit a range of emotions that only their character type would exhibit. Consequently, West’s characters are trapped in this restrictive atmosphere, especially at the end of the novel when they become part of a collective mob. In these manners, the characters in The Day of the Locust exhibit qualities akin to modern actors, proving that they are nothing more than a cast of personages rather than individuals. Hollywood is not simply a point on a map; it is a representation of the human experience. As with any other location, though, Hollywood’s history can be traced and analyzed up to present day. In 1887, Harvey Henderson Wilcox established a 120-acre ranch in an area northwest of Los Angeles, naming it â€Å"Hollywood† (Basinger 15). From then on, Hollywood grew from one man’s family to over 5,000 people in 1910. By then, residents around the ranch incorporated it as a municipality, using the name Hollywood for their village. While they voted to become part of the Los Angeles district, their village was also attracting motion-picture companies drawn in by the diverse geography of the mountains and oceanside (15). The Los Angeles area continues to flourish, now containing over nine million people, an overwhelming statistic compared to Wilcox’s original, family unit (U.S. Census Bureau 1). However, these facts only s... ...ic category. Instead, they have the freedom to shift between different roles and characters. In West’s The Day of the Locust, the characters exhibit traits most closely linked to these new types of Hollywood actors. Although he introduces them as types, he develops them throughout the novel with variable personalities. Todd’s emotions, for example, towards Faye range from sweetly romantic to vindictively dangerous. Yet, these variable personalities do not prove individuality, as the characters can all be labeled as characters, just like all actors are just actors at the end of every movie no matter what role they play. Unfortunately, West’s characters can never escape their fixed roles and established places in the narrative despite how often they attempt to change. They are forever stuck as modern actors in a 1930s Hollywood setting, and therein lies their tragedy.

Magnet Status

While many nurses are campaigning for staffing ratios, others are putting their hopes in a different kind of â€Å"magnet† – hospitals throughout North America (and one in the United Kingdom) that have received special designation by the American Nurses Association (ANA) through its American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC). Some supporters of the â€Å"Magnet hospital† concept view it as a substitute for ratios, others don’t. The term â€Å"Magnet† was coined in the 1980s, when researchers for the American Academy of Nursing (AAN), and ANA affiliate, began analyzing hospitals with a good record of nurse retention. The forty-six facilities studies in the original 1983 report were places where nurses, not surprisingly, said they liked to work. These hospitals had low turnover and vacancy rates, although they were located in areas with a lot of labor market competition for nurses (Gordon, 2005). Hospitals that act as a â€Å"magnet† for excellence creates a work surrounding that distinguish, rewards, and promote proficient nursing. Organization attributes that attract nurses to magnet hospitals support better patient care and outcomes, including a strong presence of nurses in patient care decision making, a high level collegiality between nurses and physicians, and more time for nurses to care for and teach patients, and the encouragement and expectation of critical thinking. Magnet designation is also an effective marketing tool for attracting patients and for recruiting and retaining quality nursing staff. Although the magnet designation provides numerous benefits for a hospital, the road to attaining it is not an easy one. The written application for magnet status must demonstrate how the hospital implements the Scope and Standards for Nursing Administrators and how it incorporates the forces of magnetism within nursing services. It can take two or more years to perform the assessment, compile the documentation, and have the site visit by magnet reviewers (Grossman, 2007). Some tips on making the journey to magnet designation a successful one include the following: –  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   Get buy-in front from executive management, nurse managers, and nursing staff –  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   Seek advice from other organizations that have navigated the process –  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   Organize the effort across all organizational levels and departments –  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   Establish a timeline to keep team efforts on track and promote team focus –  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   Coordinate personality styles and team members’ strengths, teaming â€Å"thinkers† with â€Å"doers† Hospitals meet the magnet standards by having a flatter organizational structure that allows nurses more say in both patient care and how their jobs are designed, making the chief nursing officer part of the executive team, hiring more staff nurses and reducing or eliminating agency and travel nurses, and supporting top nurses in pursuing research and advanced degrees (Porche, 2005). References: Gordon, S. (2005). Nursing Against the Odds: How Health Care Cost Cutting, Media Stereotypes, and Medical Hubris Undermine Nurses and Patient Care. New York: Cornell University Press. Grossman, S. (2007). Mentoring in Nursing: A Dynamic and Collaborative Process. New York: Springer Publishing Comapny. Porche, R. A. (2005). Issues and Strategies for Nurse Leaders: Meeting Hospital Challenges Today. Oakbrook Terrace, IL: Joint Commission Resources.   

Abraham Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address Essay

â€Å"So powerful is the light of unity that it can illuminate the whole earth.†-Baha’u’llah. In his Second Inaugural Address, Abraham Lincoln sincerely suggests that all humans are more similar than assumed in order to reveal the causes of the Civil War and to italicize the fact that the nation should unite as one. The similarities of the North and South caused the war. Although both parties â€Å"deprecated† and â€Å"dreaded† war, one side â€Å"accepted† war while the other â€Å"made† war. Lincoln’s use of parallelism emphasizes the similarities between both parties, which ultimately are proven to be the main cause of the war. Along with parallelism, anaphora also plays a large role within Lincoln’s comparisons of the two parties. He often repeats words such as â€Å"both† and â€Å"neither,† which again, emphasizes the fact that both parties do, indeed, have similarities. Because both sides are so similar, they fail to acknowledge the fact that war is not needed; the bitter feelings toward war in which they both possess are the very feelings that keep them at war. The parties’ comparisons create friction, which in turn â€Å"rends† them â€Å"by war.† Lincoln appeals to authority by repeatedly referring to God. Lincoln suggests that the two sides are very similar because they both believe in the same higher power. Since both parties believe in the same higher power, it would be easier to come to an understanding, and hopefully, end the war. Lincoln’s use of antithesis compares and contrasts the two parties’ bitter feelings about war, and war itself. Their bitter feelings toward war created a war. Because the North and the South were so similar, it created friction, which was the main cause of the Civil War. Regardless of similarities or differences, the nation should unite as one. The only way to â€Å"heal the nation’s wounds† would be to come together as one nation. Lincoln appeals to beliefs of unity. Lincoln’s continuous reference to God and His relationship to everyone creates a feeling of oneness throughout the nation. Lincoln posits that everyone is the same in God’s eyes, and therefore He treats them the same way, regardless of what side of the nation they reside. Again, Lincoln uses anaphora to emphasize the idea  of oneness. He uses words such as â€Å"both,† â€Å"neither,† â€Å"we,† and â€Å"all† for these purposes. Lincoln only uses singular words, such as â€Å"I,† once to avoid further separation of the nation. In order for the â€Å"scourge of war† to cease, the nation should transition from being two separate halves, to one whole. Lincoln’s appeals to beliefs of fairness suggest that neithe r side was in total control. The nation should be equal. He also uses positive diction to give the audience a sense of hope. Regardless of how similar or different the nation is, it should still be united. The Civil War is a prime example of how one side’s misunderstanding of another can create friction. â€Å"United we stand; divided we fall.†- Aesop. Abraham Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address Essay The United States Civil War was initially clashed to bring the rebellious South back in to the Union according to Abraham Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address. In his speech Lincoln says, â€Å"..to saving the Union without war,† he means here that at his first inaugural address, everyone was trying to desperately avoid a civil war, but still would do anything to help their cause. Lincoln then goes on to say, â€Å"..accept war rather than let it perish.† Here is talking about how the North changed in the sense that they would do anything to help their cause, even if it means war. Lincoln’s reason for why the war was originally started was the fact that the North knew war was the only option to preserve the Union See more: Satirical essay about drugs Although President Abraham Lincoln originally said the cause of the war was to defend the Union, he then states that the new purpose of the war was to free the slaves. He says, â€Å"These slaves constituted a peculiar and powerful interest. All knew that this interest was, somehow, the cause of the war.† Lincoln specifically states here that slaves have all always been one of the greatest controversies of his time, and they ended up being the true purpose of the Civil War. Freeing slaves had always been an issue in America, only now, bloodshed was being cast in order to defend or uphold it. Lincoln’s post war plans for the Union are evident in this line, â€Å"let us strive on to finish the work we are in; to bind up the nation’s wounds; to care for him†¦to achieve†¦everlasting peace.† Abraham Lincoln brilliantly writes here that even if he beats up or wounds the South, he wants them back, as a part of the country. Also, not only does he want the South back, but he wants them to come back right away. Lincoln’s main goal was keeping the Union together, and he made sure his post-war plans continued this idea. Abraham Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address Essay In Abraham Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address, he uses many different kinds of rhetorical strategies to unite a broken nation. During the time of the speech, it is four years into the Civil War and it is about to end. In this speech, Lincoln uses allusion, parallel structure, and diction to unify the North and the South. A rhetorical strategy that is seen throughout Lincoln’s speech is allusion. He uses God and the Bible to show that the people both from the North and also the South have the same values. Lincoln says, â€Å"Each looked for an easier triumph, and a result less fundamental and astounding. Both read the same Bible and pray to the same God, and each invokes His aid against the other. It may seem strange that any men should dare to ask a just God’s assistance in wringing their bread from the sweat of other men’s faces, but let us judge not, that we be not judged.† What Lincoln said was from the Bible, and most people could relate because many of the citizens were very religious. Lincoln also states, â€Å"†¦ Let us strive on to finish the work we are in, to bind up the nation’s wounds†¦Ã¢â‚¬  That was also an allusion to the Bible, impacting the people to help fix the nation and to help come together as a nation. Religion was very important t o many citizens of that time, so the religious allusion used in the speech was very effective. Another strategy used in Lincoln’s address was parallel structure. The parallel structure emphasized what his goals were for the nation. For example, he says, â€Å"to see the right, let us strive on to finish the work we are in, to bind up the nation’s wounds, to care for him who shall have borne the battle and for his widow and his orphan, to do all which may achieve and cherish a just and lasting peace among ourselves and with all nations.† Abraham Lincoln’s goal was to establish peace again within the two sides and to rebuild the nation. Another example of allusion was at the beginning of the speech when Lincoln said, â€Å"All dreaded it, all sought to avert it.† He said, â€Å"all† to bring together both sides, saying that neither one wanted to fight, but now they have to come together to fix the â€Å"broken nation.† Lastly, Abraham Lincoln uses diction to create a feeling of unity between  the people. In his speech, Abraham says, â€Å"Both read the same Bible and pray to the same God.† Lincoln uses the word â€Å"both† often in his speech, which unifies the North and the South. It also says in his speech, â€Å"†¦let us strive on to finish the work we are in†¦Ã¢â‚¬  That statement reminds everyone that they’re all in it together by saying â€Å"us.† Diction throughout Abraham Lincoln’s speech adds onto the unity that was created by parallel structure and allusion. In Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address, he uses religious allusion, encouraging parallel structure, and repetitive diction to unify the North and the South. Lincoln’s goal when giving this speech was not to celebrate the North’s win, but to unify and to create peace between the broken nation.

Chemistry 105 Practice Test: Answer Key

Chem 105 PracticeTest 1Note: There will not be this many questions on your test, I just wanted to give you as much practice as possible. Also, none of these exact questions will be on the test, just similar questions. Also, make sure you can do the homework, as I may have some questions similar to the homework questions. 1. Molecules can be described as a. a mixture of two or more pure substances. b. a mixture of two or more elements that has a specific ratio between components. c. two or more atoms chemically joined together. d. a heterogeneous mixture e. a homogeneous mixture Answer: C 2. Dalton's Atomic Theory states . that all elements have several isotopes. b. that matter is composed of small indestructible particles. c. that the properties of matter are determined by the properties of atoms. d. that energy is neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction. e. that an atom is predominantly empty space. Answer: B 3. Which of the following represents a hypothesis? a. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. b. Nitrogen gas is a fairly inert substance. c. Nickel has a silvery sheen. d. When a substance combusts, it combines with air. e. When wood burns, heat is given off. Answer: D 4. Which is true of a Scientific Theory (circle all that apply) a. It is an interpretation for an observation b. It is a general explanation for the manifestation and behavior of all nature c. It can be validated or invalidated by experiment and observation d. It describes why things happen Answer: B, C, and D 5. Mass (circle all that apply) a. Is dependent on location (gravity) b. Is the amount of matter in a substance and remains the same regardless of location c. can be measured by using a scale or balance d. is measured in ml Answer: B and C 6. The states of matter are a. Solid and gas b. Liquid and gas . Gas, solid, and liquid d. Gas, air, and vapor Answer: C 7. A liquid (circle all that apply) a. Has a definite volume b. Has particles that are less orderly and can move about freely c. Has particles that are tightly packed d. Has no definite volume or shape e. Answer: A and B 8. Identify dry ice as a solid, liquid, or gas. a. solid b. liquid c. gas d. both solid and liquid Answer: A 9. When a gas is cooled (circle all that apply) a. Its molecules have fewer energetic collisions b. The motion of the gas particles decrease c. The motion of gas particles increase d. Nothing happens to the gas particles Answer: A and B 10. Classify each of the following as a mixture or a pure substance: a. Carbon dioxide _____________________ b. Blood ______________________ c. Helium (He) ______________________ d. Sugar water _______________________ Answer: A-pure substance; B-mixture; C-pure substance; D-mixture 11. Choose the pure substance from the list below. a. sea water b. sugar c. air d. lemonade e. milk Answer: B 12. Choose the heterogeneous mixture from the list below. a. Gatorade b. chlorine gas c. black coffee d. chicken noodle soup e. carbon (graphite) Answer: D 13. Which of the following statements about crystalline and amorphous solids is TRUE? a. A crystalline solid is composed of atoms or molecules arranged with long-range repeating order. b. An example of a crystalline solid is glass. c. An example of an amorphous solid is table salt (NaCl). d. An amorphous solid is composed of atoms or molecules with a majority of its volume empty. e. All of the above statements are TRUE. Answer: A 14. A substance that can't be chemically broken down into simpler substances is considered to be a. a homogeneous mixture. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. compound. e. an electron. Answer: B 15. Two or more substances in variable proportions, where the composition is constant throughout are considered a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. e. a crystalline solid. Answer: D 16. Which of the following are examples of physical change? a. sugar is dissolved in water. b. coffee is brewed. c. dry ice sublimes. d. ice (solid water) melts. e. All of these are examples of physical change. Answer: E 17. Which of the following are examples of a chemical change? a. coffee brewing b. water boiling c. nails rusting d. alt dissolves in water e. None of the above are chemical changes. Answer: C 18. Which of the following represents a physical property? a. Sodium metal is extremely reactive with chlorine gas. b. Mercury is a silver liquid at room temperature. c. the tendency of aluminum to â€Å"rust† d. the flammability of butane fuel e. the unreactive nature of argon gas Answer: B 19. Define thermal energy. a. Energy associated with the temperature of an object. b. Energy associated with the motion of an object. c. Energy associated with the force of an object. d. Energy associated with the gravity of an object. e. Energy associated with the position of an object. Answer: A 20. Which of the following are examples of intensive properties? a. density b. volume c. mass d. None of the above are examples of intensive properties. e. All of the above are examples of intensive properties. Answer: A 21. If the temperature is 178 °F, what is the temperature in degrees celsius? a. 352 °C b. 451 °C c. 67 °C d. 81. 1 °C e. 378 °C Answer: D 22. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in  °F? a. 45 °F b. 298. 15 °F c. 77 °F d. -3. 89 °F Answer: C 23. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in K? a. 45 K b. 298 K c. 77 K . -3. 89 K Answer: B 24. Determine the density of an object that has a mass of 149. 8 g and displaces 12 . 1 mL of water when placed in a graduated cylinder. a. 8. 08 g/mL b. 1. 38 g/mL c. 12 . 4 g/mL d. 18. 1 g/mL e. 11. 4 g/mL Answer: C 25. A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains the following results: 4. 11 g/mL, 4. 81 g/mL, 4. 95 g/mL, 3. 75 g/mL. If the actual value for the density of the sugar solution is 4. 75 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results? a. Her results are precise, but not accurate. b. Her results are accurate, but not precise. . Her results are both precise and accurate d. Her results are neither precise nor accurate. e. It isn't possible to determine with the information given. Answer: D 26. Read the water level with the correct number of significant figures. a. 5 mL b. 5. 3 mL c. 5. 32 mL d. 5. 320 mL e. 5. 3200 mL Answer: B (Note: Remember, your last significant figure is the one that is uncertain. Because there are only whole number marks, the most certain significant figure is the 5, then we estimate where the meniscus of the liquid is between the 5 and the 6. This is why the correct reading is 5. 3, where the 3 is uncertain. If there were marks between the whole numbers, the correct answer would have 3 significant figures, since you could more accurately determine the volume. ) 27. Read the length of the metal bar with the correct number of significant figures. a. 20 cm b. 15 cm c. 15. 0 cm d. 15. 00 cm e. 15. 000 cm Answer: D 28. How many significant figures are in: 1009. 630 mL? a. 1009. 630 ml _____7______ b. 3. 408 x 104 m _____4_______ c. 0. 0005890 g ______4_______ 29. Complete the following calculations and report your answer with the correct number of significant figures: a. (249. 362 + 41)/63. 498 = ____4. 57________ b. 433. 621 + 0. 02 = ____433. 4_________ c. (965. 43 x 3. 911) + 9413. 4136 = ____1. 319 x 104 or 13190_____ 30. What wavelength of light would you report in units of nm, if the light had a wavelength of 7. 60 x 10-10 m? a. 7. 60 ? 10-3 nm b. 7. 60 ? 10-19 nm c. 1. 32 nm d. 0. 760 nm e. 760 nm Answer: D 31. How many cm3 are contained in 3. 77 ? 104 mm3? a. 3. 77 ? 104 cm3 b. 3. 77 ? 101 cm3 c. 3. 77 ? 10-10 cm3 d. 3. 77 ? 1020 cm3 e. 3. 77 ? 106 cm3 f. Answer: B 32. If a room requires 25. 4 square yards of carpeting, what is the area of the floor in units of ft2? (3 ft = 1 yd) a. 76. 2 ft2 b. 8. 47 ft2 c. 282 ft2 d. 229 ft2 e. 68. 6 ft2 Answer: D 33. Convert 15. km to miles. (use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test a. 24. 1 miles b. 9. 32 miles c. 591 miles d. 33. 1 miles e. Answer: B 34. Gas is sold for $1. 399 per liter in Toronto, Canada. Your car needs 12. 00 gallons. How much will your credit card be charged in dollars? ( use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test) a. $16. 79 b. $67. 15 c. $4. 44 d. $63. 54 Answer: D 35. Crude oil is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. Answer: C 3 6. NaCl is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. . a homogeneous mixture. Answer: A 37. A piece of metal ore weighs 8. 25 g. When a student places it into a graduated cylinder containing water, the liquid level rises from 21. 25 mL to 26. 47 mL. What is the density of the ore? a. 0. 312 g/mL b. 0. 633 g/mL c. 1. 58 g/mL d. 3. 21 g/mL Answer: C 38. A mass of mercury occupies 0. 950 L. What volume would an equal mass of ethanol occupy? The density of mercury is and the density of ethanol is 0. 789 g/mL. a. 0. 0553 L b. 0. 0613 L c. 16. 3 L d. 18. 1 L Answer: C 39. Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard exponential notation: 229. 13 a. 0. 2296 ? 103 b. 229. 6 c. 2. 296 ? 10-2 d. 2. 296 ? 102 e. 22. 96 ? 10-1 Answer: D 40. Round off 00907506 to four significant figures. a. 0091 b. 9076 c. 9100 d. 9. 075 ? 105 Answer: D 41. The diameter of an atom is approximately 1 ? 10-10 m. What is the diameter in millimeters? a. 1 ? 10-16 mm b. 1 ? 10-13 mm c. 1 ? 10-7 mm d. 1 ? 10-4 mm Answer: C 42. How many liters of wine can be held in a wine barrel whose capacity is 26. 0 gal? 1 gal = 4 qt = 3. 7854 L. a. 1. 46 ? 10-4 b. 0. 146 c. 98. 4 d. 6. 87 ? 103 e. 6. 87 Answer: C 43. 128) How many liters of air are in a room that measures 10. 0 x 11. 0 ft and has an 8. 0 ft ceiling? 1 in. = 2. 54 cm (exactly); 1 L = 103 cm3. a. 2. 49 ? 104 b. 92. 8 c. 26. 8 d. 2. 68 ? 107 e. 8. 84 ? 105 Answer: A 44. 1) Which of the following is an example of the law of multiple proportions? a. A sample of chlorine is found to contain three times as much Cl-35 as Cl-37. b. Two different compounds formed from carbon and oxygen have the following mass ratios: 1. 33 g O: 1 g C and 2. 66 g O: 1 g C. c. Two different samples of table salt are found to have the same ratio of sodium to chlorine. d. The atomic mass of bromine is found to be 79. 90 amu. e. Nitrogen dioxide always has a mass ratio of 2. 8 g O: 1 g N. Answer: B 45. Identify the element that has an atomic number of 40. a. neon b. calcium c. zirconium d. bromine Answer: C 46. The atomic mass for cadmium is a. 48 b. 112. 41 c. 40. 08 d. 20 Answer: B 47. The mass number is equal to a. the sum of the sum of the electrons and protons. b. the sum of the sum of the neutrons and electrons. c. the sum of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. d. the sum of the number of protons and neutrons. Answer: D 48. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 11n ° = 12 e- = 11 a. sodium b. vanadium c. magnesium d. titanium Answer: A 49. ) What does â€Å"X† represent in the following symbol? X a. silicon b. sulfur c. zinc d. ruthenium e. nickel Answer: A 50. 11) Determine the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the following: X a. p+ = 18n ° = 18e- = 22 b. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 18 c. p+ = 22n ° = 18e- = 18 d. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 40 e. p+ = 40 n ° = 22e- = 18 Answer: B 51. Identify a cation. a. An atom that has lost an electron. b. An atom that has gained an electron. c. An atom that has lost a proton. d. An atom that has gained a proton. Answer: A 52. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 17n ° = 20 e- = 17 a. calcium b. rubidium c. hlorine d. neon e. oxygen Answer: C 53. What species is represented by the following information? p+ = 17 n ° = 18 e- = 18 a. Cl b. Cl- c. Ar d. Ar+ e. Kr f. Answer: B 54. Give the number of electrons for carbon-14, with a -2 charge . a. 7 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: D 55. Predict the charge that an aluminum ion would have. a. 5- b. 1+ c. 1- d. 2+ e. 3+ Answer: E 56. Predict the charge that the ion formed from bromine would have. a. 1- b. 2+ c. 1+ d. 4+ e. 2- f. Answer: A 57. Which of the following elements is NOT a metal? a. Ba b. Mg c. Xe d. Pb e. Ga Answer: C 58. Which of the following elements is a noble gas? a. Ar b. Br c. N d. O e. K Answer: A 59. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal? a. Zn b. Xe c. F d. Li e. Ca Answer: D 60. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Anions are usually larger than their corresponding atom. b. Metals tend to form cations c. Atoms are usually larger than their corresponding cation. d. The halogens tend to form 1+ ions. e. Nonmetals tend to gain electrons. Answer: D 61. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonmetal? a. Tend to gain electrons b. Found in the upper right hand corner of the periodic table. c. Poor conductor of electricity d. Nonmetals are generally unreactive. e. Poor conductor of heat. Answer: D 62. Silver has an atomic mass of 107. 868 amu. The Ag-109 isotope (108. 905 amu) is 48. 16%. What is the amu of the other isotope? a. 106. 905 amu b. 106. 908 amu c. 106. 903 amu d. D) 106. 911 amu Answer: A 63. Which of the following contains the MOST atoms? You shouldn't need to do a calculation here. a. 10. 0 g Ne b. 10. 0 g He c. 10. 0 g Ar d. 10. 0 g Kr e. 10. 0 g Mg Answer: B 64. How many silver atoms are contained in 3. 75 moles of silver? a. 6. 23 ? 1024 silver atoms b. 2. 26 ? 1024 silver atoms c. 1. 61 ? 1023 silver atoms d. 2. 44 ? 1026 silver atoms e. 6. 50 ? 1025 silver atoms Answer: B 65. How many moles of potassium are contained in 449 g of potassium? a. 11. 5 moles b. 17. 6 moles c. 69. 2 moles d. 23. 9 moles e. 41. 5 moles Answer: A 66. What mass, in kg, does 5. 84 moles of titanium (Ti) have? a. 0. 352 kg b. 0. 122 kg c. 0. 820 kg d. 0. 280 kg e. 0. 632 kg Answer: D 67. How many moles of Cs are contained in 595 kg of Cs? a. 2. 23 ? 102 moles Cs b. 4. 48 ? 103 moles Cs c. 7. 91 ? 104 moles Cs d. 1. 26 ? 103 moles Cs e. 5. 39 ? 102 moles Cs Answer: B 68. How many iron atoms are contained in 354 g of iron? a. 2. 62 ? 1025 Fe atoms b. 2. 13 ? 1026 Fe atoms c. 4. 69 ? 1024 Fe atoms d. 3. 82 ? 1024 Fe atoms . 9. 50 ? 1022 Fe atoms Answer: D 69. Calculate the mass, in kg, of 4. 87 x 1025 atoms of Zn. a. 5. 29 kg b. 1. 89 kg c. 8. 09 kg d. 1. 24 kg e. 1. 09 kg Answer: A Match the following. A) Fe B) C C) Mg D) Si E) K 70. magnesium 71. carbon 72. potassium 73. iron 74. silicon Answers: 70) C 71) B 72) E 73) A 74) D 75. Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na. Answer: sodium 76. An atom of 131Xe contains ________ electrons. a. 131 b. 185 c. 77 d. 123 e. 54 Answer: E 77. An ion has 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 10 electrons. The symbol for the ion is ________. a. 17O2- b. 17O2+ c. 19F+ d. 19F- e. 17Ne2+ Answer: A 78. How many protons does the Br- ion possess? a. 34 b. 36 c. 6 d. 8 e. 35 Answer: E 79. Predict the charge of the most stable ion of potassium. a. 3+ b. 1- c. 2+ d. 2- e. 1+ Answer: E 80. What is the chemical symbol for mercury? a. Ag b. Au c. Hg d. Pb Answer: C 81. Which are isotopes? An atom that has an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 42 is an isotope of an atom that has a. an atomic number of 21 and a mass number of 42. b. an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 40. c. 22 neutrons and 20 protons. d. 22 protons and 20 neutrons. Answer: B 82. How many protons (p) and neutrons (n) are in an atom of Sr? a. 38 p, 52 n . 38 p, 90 n c. 52 p, 38 n d. 90 p, 38 n Answer: A 83. The mass number of an atom of 128Xe is ________. a. 54 b. 182 c. 74 d. 128 e. 120 Answer: D 84. What is the identity of element Q if the ion Q2+ contains 10 electrons? a. C b. O c. Ne d. Mg Answer: D 85. In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of electrons? a. F-, Ne, Mg2+ b. Ge, Se2-, Br- c. K+, Rb+, Cs+ d. Br, Br-, Br+ Answer: A 86. Argon belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. a. alkali metal b. alkaline earth metal c. halogen d. noble gas Answer: D 87. Which of the following elements has chemical properties similar to tellurium? . fluorine b. hydrogen c. nitrogen d. sulfur Answer: D 88. An ionic bond is best described as: a. the sharing of electrons. b. the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. c. the attraction that holds the atoms together in a polyatomic ion. d. the attraction between 2 nonmetal atoms. e. the attraction between 2 metal atoms. Answer: B 89. What is the empirical formula for C4H10O2? a. C2H5O b. CHO c. C2H4O d. CHO2 e. CH2O Answer: A 90. Write a possible molecular formula for C4H4O. a. C8H8O2 b. C12H12O2 c. C2H2O d. C8H8O Answer: A 91. Which of the following is an atomic element? a. Br b. H c. N d. O e. Mg Answer: E 92. Which of the following is a molecular element? a. Kr b. Ag c. S d. Mg e. Ti Answer: C 93. Which of the following is a molecular compound? a. CuCl2 b. KCl c. NaNO3 d. CH3Cl e. RbBr f. Answer: D 94. Which of the following is an ionic compound? a. SCl2 b. Mg3(PO4)2 c. Cl2O d. CH2O e. PF5 Answer: B 95. Write the formula for the compound formed between potassium and sulfur. a. KS b. KS2 c. K2S d. K2SO3 e. K3S2 Answer: C 96. Give the name for SnO. a. tin (I) oxide b. tin (II) oxide c. tin (III) oxide d. tin (IV) oxide Answer: B 97. Write the formula for strontium nitride. a. Sr3N2 b. Sr(NO3)2 c. SrN d. Sr2N3 e. Sr(NO2)2 Answer: A 98. Write the name for Sn(SO4)2. Remember that Sn forms several ions. a. tin (I) sulfite b. tin (IV) sulfate c. tin sulfide d. tin (II) sulfite e. tin (I) sulfate Answer: B 99. Determine the name for CoCl2†¢6H2O. Remember that Co forms several ions. a. cobalt chloride hydrate b. cobalt (I) chloride heptahydrate c. cobalt (II) chloride heptahydrate d. cobalt (II) chloride hexahydrate e. cobalt (I) chloride Answer: D 100. Write the formula for copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate. a. Cu2SO3†¢H5 b. Cu2S†¢H2O c. CuS†¢5H2O d. (CuSO4)5 e. CuSO4†¢5H2O Answer: E 101. Determine the name for H2CO3. a. carbonous acid b. dihydrogen carbonate c. carbonic acid . hydrocarbonic acid e. hydrocarbide acid Answer: C 102. Identify the formula for nitric acid. a. HNO3 b. HNO2 c. HNO d. HNO4 Answer: A 103. Determine the name for P4O10. a. phosphorus (IV) oxide b. diphosphorus pentoxide c. phosphorus oxide d. phosphorus (II) oxide e. tetraphosphorus decoxide Answer: E 104. Calculate the molar mass for Mg(ClO4)2. a. 223. 21 g/mol b. 123. 76 g/mol c. 119. 52 g/mol d. 247. 52 g/mol e. 75. 76 g/mol Answer: A 105. Calculate the molar mass of Al(C2H3O2)3. a. 86. 03 g/mol b. 204. 13 g/mol c. 56. 00 g/mol d. 258. 09 g/mol e. 139. 99 g/mol Answer: B 106. How many millimoles of Ca(NO3)2 contain 4. 8 ? 1022 formula units of Ca(NO3)2? The molar mass of Ca(NO3)2 is 164. 10 g/mol. a. 12. 6 mmol Ca(NO3)2 b. 13. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 c. 20. 7 mmol Ca(NO3)2 d. 79. 4 mmol Ca(NO3)2 e. 57. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 Answer: D 107. How many C2H4 molecules are contained in 45. 8 mg of C2H4? The molar mass of C2H4 is 28. 05 g/mol. a. 9. 83 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules b. 7. 74 ? 1026 C2H4 molecules c. 2. 71 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules d. 3. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules e. 4. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules Answer: A 108. What is the mass of 9. 44 ? 1024 molecules of NO2? The molar mass of NO2 is 46. 01 g/mol. a. 205 g b. 294 g c. 721 g d. 341 g e. 685 g Answer: C 109. Calculate the mass percent composition of sulfur in Al2(SO4)3. a. 28. 12 % b. 9. 372 % c. 42. 73 % d. 21. 38 % e. 35. 97 % Answer: A 110. How many moles of N2O3 contain 2. 55 ? 1024 oxygen atoms? (change the molecule) a. 1. 41 moles N2O3 b. 4. 23 moles N2O3 c. 12. 7 moles N2O3 d. 7. 87 moles N2O3 e. 2. 82 moles N2O3 Answer: A 111. How many moles of PCl3 contain 3. 68 ? 1025 chlorine atoms? a. 61. 1 moles PCl3 b. 20. 4 moles PCl3 c. 16. 4 moles PCl3 d. 54. 5 moles PCl3 e. 49. 1 moles PCl3 Answer: B 112. How many sodium ions are contained in 99. 6 mg of Na2SO3? The molar mass of Na2SO3 is 126. 05 g/mol. a. 1. 52 ? 1027 sodium ions . 4. 76 ? 1020 sodium ions c. 2. 10 ? 1021 sodium ions d. 1. 05 ? 1021 sodium ions e. 9. 52 ? 1020 sodium ions Answer: E 113. Determine the volume of hexane that contains 5. 33 ? 1022 molecules of hexane. The density of hexane is 0. 6548 g/mL and its molar mass is 86. 17 g/mol. a. 8. 59 mL b. 13. 5 mL c. 7. 40 mL d. 12. 4 mL e. 11. 6 mL Answer: E 114. Determine the molecular formula of a compound that has a molar mass of 92. 0 g/mol and an empirical formula of NO2. a. N2O3 b. N3O6 c. N2O4 d. NO2 e. N2O5 Answer: C 115. Determine the empirical formula for a compound that is 36. 86% N and 63. 14% O by mass. a. NO b. N2O c. NO2 d. N2O3 e. NO3 Answer: D 116. Write a balanced equation to show the reaction of gaseous ethane with gaseous oxygen to form carbon monoxide gas and water vapor. a. 2 C2H6(g) + 7 O2(g) > 4 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g) b. C2H6(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) c. 2 C2H6(g) + 5 O2(g) > 4 CO(g) + 6 H2O(g) d. C2H6(g) + 7 O(g) > 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(g) e. 2 CH3(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) Answer: C 117. Which of the following is one possible form of pentane? a. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 b. CH3CH=CHCH2CH3 c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 d. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 e. CH3CH2-O-CH2CH2CH3 Answer: A 118. List the elements in a hydrocarbon Answer: hydrogen and carbon 119. What type of bonding is found in the compound OF2? a. covalent bonding b. hydrogen bonding c. ionic bonding d. metallic bonding Answer: A 120. In which set do all elements tend to form cations in binary ionic compounds? a. K, Ga, O b. Sr, Ni, Hg c. N, P, Bi d. O, Br, I Answer: B 121. Rb2S is named a. rubidium disulfide. b. rubidium sulfide. c. rubidium(II) sulfide. d. rubidium sulfur. Answer: B 122. An aqueous solution of H2S is named a. hydrosulfuric acid. b. hydrosulfurous acid. c. sulfuric acid. d. sulfurous acid. Answer: A 123. What is the molar mass of nitrogen gas? a. 14. 0 g/mol b. 28. 0 g/mol c. 6. 02 ? 1023 g/mol d. 1. 20 ? 023 g/mol Answer: B 124. What mass of carbon dioxide, C O2, contains the same number of molecules as 3. 00 g of trichlorofluoromethane, CCl3F? a. 0. 106 g b. 0. 961 g c. 1. 04 g d. 9. 37 g e. Answer: B 125. Which of the following has the greatest mass? a. 3. 88 ? 1022 molecules of O2 b. 1. 00 g of O2 c. 0. 0312 mol of O2 d. All of the above have the same mass. Answer: A 126. A sample of pure calcium fluoride with a mass of 15. 0 g contains 7. 70 g of calcium. How much calcium is contained in 40. 0 g of calcium fluoride? a. 2. 27 g b. 7. 70 g c. 15. 0 g d. 20. 5 g Answer: D 127. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 62. % C, 10. 4% H, and 27. 5% O by mass? a. C3HO b. C6HO3 c. C6H12O2 d. C5H10O2 e. C3H6O Answer: E 128. How many oxygen atoms are there in 7. 00 g of sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7? a. 0. 187 oxygen atoms b. 2. 30 ? 1021 oxygen atoms c. 1. 60 ? 1022 oxygen atoms d. 1. 13 ? 1023 oxygen atoms Answer: D 129. Methane and oxygen react to form carbon dioxide and water. What mass of water is formed if 0. 80 g of methane reacts with 3. 2 g of oxygen to produce 2. 2 g of carbon dioxide? a. 1. 8 g b. 2. 2 g c. 3. 7 g d. 4. 0 g Answer: A 130. Combustion analysis of 1. 200 g of an unknown compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen produced 2. 86 g of CO2 and 1. 134 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? a. C2H5O b. C2H5O2 c. C2H10O3 d. C3H8O2 Answer: D 131. What is the stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen when the following equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number coefficients? _____ C2H6O (l) + _____ O2(g) > _____ CO2(g) + _____ H2O(l) a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3 Answer: D 132. Calcium phosphate reacts with sulfuric acid to form calcium sulfate and phosphoric acid. What is the coefficient for sulfuric acid when the equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-numbered coefficients? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. none of these Answer: C Chemistry 105 Practice Test: Answer Key Chem 105 PracticeTest 1Note: There will not be this many questions on your test, I just wanted to give you as much practice as possible. Also, none of these exact questions will be on the test, just similar questions. Also, make sure you can do the homework, as I may have some questions similar to the homework questions. 1. Molecules can be described as a. a mixture of two or more pure substances. b. a mixture of two or more elements that has a specific ratio between components. c. two or more atoms chemically joined together. d. a heterogeneous mixture e. a homogeneous mixture Answer: C 2. Dalton's Atomic Theory states . that all elements have several isotopes. b. that matter is composed of small indestructible particles. c. that the properties of matter are determined by the properties of atoms. d. that energy is neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction. e. that an atom is predominantly empty space. Answer: B 3. Which of the following represents a hypothesis? a. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. b. Nitrogen gas is a fairly inert substance. c. Nickel has a silvery sheen. d. When a substance combusts, it combines with air. e. When wood burns, heat is given off. Answer: D 4. Which is true of a Scientific Theory (circle all that apply) a. It is an interpretation for an observation b. It is a general explanation for the manifestation and behavior of all nature c. It can be validated or invalidated by experiment and observation d. It describes why things happen Answer: B, C, and D 5. Mass (circle all that apply) a. Is dependent on location (gravity) b. Is the amount of matter in a substance and remains the same regardless of location c. can be measured by using a scale or balance d. is measured in ml Answer: B and C 6. The states of matter are a. Solid and gas b. Liquid and gas . Gas, solid, and liquid d. Gas, air, and vapor Answer: C 7. A liquid (circle all that apply) a. Has a definite volume b. Has particles that are less orderly and can move about freely c. Has particles that are tightly packed d. Has no definite volume or shape e. Answer: A and B 8. Identify dry ice as a solid, liquid, or gas. a. solid b. liquid c. gas d. both solid and liquid Answer: A 9. When a gas is cooled (circle all that apply) a. Its molecules have fewer energetic collisions b. The motion of the gas particles decrease c. The motion of gas particles increase d. Nothing happens to the gas particles Answer: A and B 10. Classify each of the following as a mixture or a pure substance: a. Carbon dioxide _____________________ b. Blood ______________________ c. Helium (He) ______________________ d. Sugar water _______________________ Answer: A-pure substance; B-mixture; C-pure substance; D-mixture 11. Choose the pure substance from the list below. a. sea water b. sugar c. air d. lemonade e. milk Answer: B 12. Choose the heterogeneous mixture from the list below. a. Gatorade b. chlorine gas c. black coffee d. chicken noodle soup e. carbon (graphite) Answer: D 13. Which of the following statements about crystalline and amorphous solids is TRUE? a. A crystalline solid is composed of atoms or molecules arranged with long-range repeating order. b. An example of a crystalline solid is glass. c. An example of an amorphous solid is table salt (NaCl). d. An amorphous solid is composed of atoms or molecules with a majority of its volume empty. e. All of the above statements are TRUE. Answer: A 14. A substance that can't be chemically broken down into simpler substances is considered to be a. a homogeneous mixture. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. compound. e. an electron. Answer: B 15. Two or more substances in variable proportions, where the composition is constant throughout are considered a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. e. a crystalline solid. Answer: D 16. Which of the following are examples of physical change? a. sugar is dissolved in water. b. coffee is brewed. c. dry ice sublimes. d. ice (solid water) melts. e. All of these are examples of physical change. Answer: E 17. Which of the following are examples of a chemical change? a. coffee brewing b. water boiling c. nails rusting d. alt dissolves in water e. None of the above are chemical changes. Answer: C 18. Which of the following represents a physical property? a. Sodium metal is extremely reactive with chlorine gas. b. Mercury is a silver liquid at room temperature. c. the tendency of aluminum to â€Å"rust† d. the flammability of butane fuel e. the unreactive nature of argon gas Answer: B 19. Define thermal energy. a. Energy associated with the temperature of an object. b. Energy associated with the motion of an object. c. Energy associated with the force of an object. d. Energy associated with the gravity of an object. e. Energy associated with the position of an object. Answer: A 20. Which of the following are examples of intensive properties? a. density b. volume c. mass d. None of the above are examples of intensive properties. e. All of the above are examples of intensive properties. Answer: A 21. If the temperature is 178 °F, what is the temperature in degrees celsius? a. 352 °C b. 451 °C c. 67 °C d. 81. 1 °C e. 378 °C Answer: D 22. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in  °F? a. 45 °F b. 298. 15 °F c. 77 °F d. -3. 89 °F Answer: C 23. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in K? a. 45 K b. 298 K c. 77 K . -3. 89 K Answer: B 24. Determine the density of an object that has a mass of 149. 8 g and displaces 12 . 1 mL of water when placed in a graduated cylinder. a. 8. 08 g/mL b. 1. 38 g/mL c. 12 . 4 g/mL d. 18. 1 g/mL e. 11. 4 g/mL Answer: C 25. A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains the following results: 4. 11 g/mL, 4. 81 g/mL, 4. 95 g/mL, 3. 75 g/mL. If the actual value for the density of the sugar solution is 4. 75 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results? a. Her results are precise, but not accurate. b. Her results are accurate, but not precise. . Her results are both precise and accurate d. Her results are neither precise nor accurate. e. It isn't possible to determine with the information given. Answer: D 26. Read the water level with the correct number of significant figures. a. 5 mL b. 5. 3 mL c. 5. 32 mL d. 5. 320 mL e. 5. 3200 mL Answer: B (Note: Remember, your last significant figure is the one that is uncertain. Because there are only whole number marks, the most certain significant figure is the 5, then we estimate where the meniscus of the liquid is between the 5 and the 6. This is why the correct reading is 5. 3, where the 3 is uncertain. If there were marks between the whole numbers, the correct answer would have 3 significant figures, since you could more accurately determine the volume. ) 27. Read the length of the metal bar with the correct number of significant figures. a. 20 cm b. 15 cm c. 15. 0 cm d. 15. 00 cm e. 15. 000 cm Answer: D 28. How many significant figures are in: 1009. 630 mL? a. 1009. 630 ml _____7______ b. 3. 408 x 104 m _____4_______ c. 0. 0005890 g ______4_______ 29. Complete the following calculations and report your answer with the correct number of significant figures: a. (249. 362 + 41)/63. 498 = ____4. 57________ b. 433. 621 + 0. 02 = ____433. 4_________ c. (965. 43 x 3. 911) + 9413. 4136 = ____1. 319 x 104 or 13190_____ 30. What wavelength of light would you report in units of nm, if the light had a wavelength of 7. 60 x 10-10 m? a. 7. 60 ? 10-3 nm b. 7. 60 ? 10-19 nm c. 1. 32 nm d. 0. 760 nm e. 760 nm Answer: D 31. How many cm3 are contained in 3. 77 ? 104 mm3? a. 3. 77 ? 104 cm3 b. 3. 77 ? 101 cm3 c. 3. 77 ? 10-10 cm3 d. 3. 77 ? 1020 cm3 e. 3. 77 ? 106 cm3 f. Answer: B 32. If a room requires 25. 4 square yards of carpeting, what is the area of the floor in units of ft2? (3 ft = 1 yd) a. 76. 2 ft2 b. 8. 47 ft2 c. 282 ft2 d. 229 ft2 e. 68. 6 ft2 Answer: D 33. Convert 15. km to miles. (use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test a. 24. 1 miles b. 9. 32 miles c. 591 miles d. 33. 1 miles e. Answer: B 34. Gas is sold for $1. 399 per liter in Toronto, Canada. Your car needs 12. 00 gallons. How much will your credit card be charged in dollars? ( use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test) a. $16. 79 b. $67. 15 c. $4. 44 d. $63. 54 Answer: D 35. Crude oil is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. Answer: C 3 6. NaCl is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. . a homogeneous mixture. Answer: A 37. A piece of metal ore weighs 8. 25 g. When a student places it into a graduated cylinder containing water, the liquid level rises from 21. 25 mL to 26. 47 mL. What is the density of the ore? a. 0. 312 g/mL b. 0. 633 g/mL c. 1. 58 g/mL d. 3. 21 g/mL Answer: C 38. A mass of mercury occupies 0. 950 L. What volume would an equal mass of ethanol occupy? The density of mercury is and the density of ethanol is 0. 789 g/mL. a. 0. 0553 L b. 0. 0613 L c. 16. 3 L d. 18. 1 L Answer: C 39. Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard exponential notation: 229. 13 a. 0. 2296 ? 103 b. 229. 6 c. 2. 296 ? 10-2 d. 2. 296 ? 102 e. 22. 96 ? 10-1 Answer: D 40. Round off 00907506 to four significant figures. a. 0091 b. 9076 c. 9100 d. 9. 075 ? 105 Answer: D 41. The diameter of an atom is approximately 1 ? 10-10 m. What is the diameter in millimeters? a. 1 ? 10-16 mm b. 1 ? 10-13 mm c. 1 ? 10-7 mm d. 1 ? 10-4 mm Answer: C 42. How many liters of wine can be held in a wine barrel whose capacity is 26. 0 gal? 1 gal = 4 qt = 3. 7854 L. a. 1. 46 ? 10-4 b. 0. 146 c. 98. 4 d. 6. 87 ? 103 e. 6. 87 Answer: C 43. 128) How many liters of air are in a room that measures 10. 0 x 11. 0 ft and has an 8. 0 ft ceiling? 1 in. = 2. 54 cm (exactly); 1 L = 103 cm3. a. 2. 49 ? 104 b. 92. 8 c. 26. 8 d. 2. 68 ? 107 e. 8. 84 ? 105 Answer: A 44. 1) Which of the following is an example of the law of multiple proportions? a. A sample of chlorine is found to contain three times as much Cl-35 as Cl-37. b. Two different compounds formed from carbon and oxygen have the following mass ratios: 1. 33 g O: 1 g C and 2. 66 g O: 1 g C. c. Two different samples of table salt are found to have the same ratio of sodium to chlorine. d. The atomic mass of bromine is found to be 79. 90 amu. e. Nitrogen dioxide always has a mass ratio of 2. 8 g O: 1 g N. Answer: B 45. Identify the element that has an atomic number of 40. a. neon b. calcium c. zirconium d. bromine Answer: C 46. The atomic mass for cadmium is a. 48 b. 112. 41 c. 40. 08 d. 20 Answer: B 47. The mass number is equal to a. the sum of the sum of the electrons and protons. b. the sum of the sum of the neutrons and electrons. c. the sum of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. d. the sum of the number of protons and neutrons. Answer: D 48. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 11n ° = 12 e- = 11 a. sodium b. vanadium c. magnesium d. titanium Answer: A 49. ) What does â€Å"X† represent in the following symbol? X a. silicon b. sulfur c. zinc d. ruthenium e. nickel Answer: A 50. 11) Determine the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the following: X a. p+ = 18n ° = 18e- = 22 b. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 18 c. p+ = 22n ° = 18e- = 18 d. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 40 e. p+ = 40 n ° = 22e- = 18 Answer: B 51. Identify a cation. a. An atom that has lost an electron. b. An atom that has gained an electron. c. An atom that has lost a proton. d. An atom that has gained a proton. Answer: A 52. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 17n ° = 20 e- = 17 a. calcium b. rubidium c. hlorine d. neon e. oxygen Answer: C 53. What species is represented by the following information? p+ = 17 n ° = 18 e- = 18 a. Cl b. Cl- c. Ar d. Ar+ e. Kr f. Answer: B 54. Give the number of electrons for carbon-14, with a -2 charge . a. 7 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: D 55. Predict the charge that an aluminum ion would have. a. 5- b. 1+ c. 1- d. 2+ e. 3+ Answer: E 56. Predict the charge that the ion formed from bromine would have. a. 1- b. 2+ c. 1+ d. 4+ e. 2- f. Answer: A 57. Which of the following elements is NOT a metal? a. Ba b. Mg c. Xe d. Pb e. Ga Answer: C 58. Which of the following elements is a noble gas? a. Ar b. Br c. N d. O e. K Answer: A 59. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal? a. Zn b. Xe c. F d. Li e. Ca Answer: D 60. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Anions are usually larger than their corresponding atom. b. Metals tend to form cations c. Atoms are usually larger than their corresponding cation. d. The halogens tend to form 1+ ions. e. Nonmetals tend to gain electrons. Answer: D 61. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonmetal? a. Tend to gain electrons b. Found in the upper right hand corner of the periodic table. c. Poor conductor of electricity d. Nonmetals are generally unreactive. e. Poor conductor of heat. Answer: D 62. Silver has an atomic mass of 107. 868 amu. The Ag-109 isotope (108. 905 amu) is 48. 16%. What is the amu of the other isotope? a. 106. 905 amu b. 106. 908 amu c. 106. 903 amu d. D) 106. 911 amu Answer: A 63. Which of the following contains the MOST atoms? You shouldn't need to do a calculation here. a. 10. 0 g Ne b. 10. 0 g He c. 10. 0 g Ar d. 10. 0 g Kr e. 10. 0 g Mg Answer: B 64. How many silver atoms are contained in 3. 75 moles of silver? a. 6. 23 ? 1024 silver atoms b. 2. 26 ? 1024 silver atoms c. 1. 61 ? 1023 silver atoms d. 2. 44 ? 1026 silver atoms e. 6. 50 ? 1025 silver atoms Answer: B 65. How many moles of potassium are contained in 449 g of potassium? a. 11. 5 moles b. 17. 6 moles c. 69. 2 moles d. 23. 9 moles e. 41. 5 moles Answer: A 66. What mass, in kg, does 5. 84 moles of titanium (Ti) have? a. 0. 352 kg b. 0. 122 kg c. 0. 820 kg d. 0. 280 kg e. 0. 632 kg Answer: D 67. How many moles of Cs are contained in 595 kg of Cs? a. 2. 23 ? 102 moles Cs b. 4. 48 ? 103 moles Cs c. 7. 91 ? 104 moles Cs d. 1. 26 ? 103 moles Cs e. 5. 39 ? 102 moles Cs Answer: B 68. How many iron atoms are contained in 354 g of iron? a. 2. 62 ? 1025 Fe atoms b. 2. 13 ? 1026 Fe atoms c. 4. 69 ? 1024 Fe atoms d. 3. 82 ? 1024 Fe atoms . 9. 50 ? 1022 Fe atoms Answer: D 69. Calculate the mass, in kg, of 4. 87 x 1025 atoms of Zn. a. 5. 29 kg b. 1. 89 kg c. 8. 09 kg d. 1. 24 kg e. 1. 09 kg Answer: A Match the following. A) Fe B) C C) Mg D) Si E) K 70. magnesium 71. carbon 72. potassium 73. iron 74. silicon Answers: 70) C 71) B 72) E 73) A 74) D 75. Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na. Answer: sodium 76. An atom of 131Xe contains ________ electrons. a. 131 b. 185 c. 77 d. 123 e. 54 Answer: E 77. An ion has 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 10 electrons. The symbol for the ion is ________. a. 17O2- b. 17O2+ c. 19F+ d. 19F- e. 17Ne2+ Answer: A 78. How many protons does the Br- ion possess? a. 34 b. 36 c. 6 d. 8 e. 35 Answer: E 79. Predict the charge of the most stable ion of potassium. a. 3+ b. 1- c. 2+ d. 2- e. 1+ Answer: E 80. What is the chemical symbol for mercury? a. Ag b. Au c. Hg d. Pb Answer: C 81. Which are isotopes? An atom that has an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 42 is an isotope of an atom that has a. an atomic number of 21 and a mass number of 42. b. an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 40. c. 22 neutrons and 20 protons. d. 22 protons and 20 neutrons. Answer: B 82. How many protons (p) and neutrons (n) are in an atom of Sr? a. 38 p, 52 n . 38 p, 90 n c. 52 p, 38 n d. 90 p, 38 n Answer: A 83. The mass number of an atom of 128Xe is ________. a. 54 b. 182 c. 74 d. 128 e. 120 Answer: D 84. What is the identity of element Q if the ion Q2+ contains 10 electrons? a. C b. O c. Ne d. Mg Answer: D 85. In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of electrons? a. F-, Ne, Mg2+ b. Ge, Se2-, Br- c. K+, Rb+, Cs+ d. Br, Br-, Br+ Answer: A 86. Argon belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. a. alkali metal b. alkaline earth metal c. halogen d. noble gas Answer: D 87. Which of the following elements has chemical properties similar to tellurium? . fluorine b. hydrogen c. nitrogen d. sulfur Answer: D 88. An ionic bond is best described as: a. the sharing of electrons. b. the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. c. the attraction that holds the atoms together in a polyatomic ion. d. the attraction between 2 nonmetal atoms. e. the attraction between 2 metal atoms. Answer: B 89. What is the empirical formula for C4H10O2? a. C2H5O b. CHO c. C2H4O d. CHO2 e. CH2O Answer: A 90. Write a possible molecular formula for C4H4O. a. C8H8O2 b. C12H12O2 c. C2H2O d. C8H8O Answer: A 91. Which of the following is an atomic element? a. Br b. H c. N d. O e. Mg Answer: E 92. Which of the following is a molecular element? a. Kr b. Ag c. S d. Mg e. Ti Answer: C 93. Which of the following is a molecular compound? a. CuCl2 b. KCl c. NaNO3 d. CH3Cl e. RbBr f. Answer: D 94. Which of the following is an ionic compound? a. SCl2 b. Mg3(PO4)2 c. Cl2O d. CH2O e. PF5 Answer: B 95. Write the formula for the compound formed between potassium and sulfur. a. KS b. KS2 c. K2S d. K2SO3 e. K3S2 Answer: C 96. Give the name for SnO. a. tin (I) oxide b. tin (II) oxide c. tin (III) oxide d. tin (IV) oxide Answer: B 97. Write the formula for strontium nitride. a. Sr3N2 b. Sr(NO3)2 c. SrN d. Sr2N3 e. Sr(NO2)2 Answer: A 98. Write the name for Sn(SO4)2. Remember that Sn forms several ions. a. tin (I) sulfite b. tin (IV) sulfate c. tin sulfide d. tin (II) sulfite e. tin (I) sulfate Answer: B 99. Determine the name for CoCl2†¢6H2O. Remember that Co forms several ions. a. cobalt chloride hydrate b. cobalt (I) chloride heptahydrate c. cobalt (II) chloride heptahydrate d. cobalt (II) chloride hexahydrate e. cobalt (I) chloride Answer: D 100. Write the formula for copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate. a. Cu2SO3†¢H5 b. Cu2S†¢H2O c. CuS†¢5H2O d. (CuSO4)5 e. CuSO4†¢5H2O Answer: E 101. Determine the name for H2CO3. a. carbonous acid b. dihydrogen carbonate c. carbonic acid . hydrocarbonic acid e. hydrocarbide acid Answer: C 102. Identify the formula for nitric acid. a. HNO3 b. HNO2 c. HNO d. HNO4 Answer: A 103. Determine the name for P4O10. a. phosphorus (IV) oxide b. diphosphorus pentoxide c. phosphorus oxide d. phosphorus (II) oxide e. tetraphosphorus decoxide Answer: E 104. Calculate the molar mass for Mg(ClO4)2. a. 223. 21 g/mol b. 123. 76 g/mol c. 119. 52 g/mol d. 247. 52 g/mol e. 75. 76 g/mol Answer: A 105. Calculate the molar mass of Al(C2H3O2)3. a. 86. 03 g/mol b. 204. 13 g/mol c. 56. 00 g/mol d. 258. 09 g/mol e. 139. 99 g/mol Answer: B 106. How many millimoles of Ca(NO3)2 contain 4. 8 ? 1022 formula units of Ca(NO3)2? The molar mass of Ca(NO3)2 is 164. 10 g/mol. a. 12. 6 mmol Ca(NO3)2 b. 13. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 c. 20. 7 mmol Ca(NO3)2 d. 79. 4 mmol Ca(NO3)2 e. 57. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 Answer: D 107. How many C2H4 molecules are contained in 45. 8 mg of C2H4? The molar mass of C2H4 is 28. 05 g/mol. a. 9. 83 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules b. 7. 74 ? 1026 C2H4 molecules c. 2. 71 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules d. 3. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules e. 4. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules Answer: A 108. What is the mass of 9. 44 ? 1024 molecules of NO2? The molar mass of NO2 is 46. 01 g/mol. a. 205 g b. 294 g c. 721 g d. 341 g e. 685 g Answer: C 109. Calculate the mass percent composition of sulfur in Al2(SO4)3. a. 28. 12 % b. 9. 372 % c. 42. 73 % d. 21. 38 % e. 35. 97 % Answer: A 110. How many moles of N2O3 contain 2. 55 ? 1024 oxygen atoms? (change the molecule) a. 1. 41 moles N2O3 b. 4. 23 moles N2O3 c. 12. 7 moles N2O3 d. 7. 87 moles N2O3 e. 2. 82 moles N2O3 Answer: A 111. How many moles of PCl3 contain 3. 68 ? 1025 chlorine atoms? a. 61. 1 moles PCl3 b. 20. 4 moles PCl3 c. 16. 4 moles PCl3 d. 54. 5 moles PCl3 e. 49. 1 moles PCl3 Answer: B 112. How many sodium ions are contained in 99. 6 mg of Na2SO3? The molar mass of Na2SO3 is 126. 05 g/mol. a. 1. 52 ? 1027 sodium ions . 4. 76 ? 1020 sodium ions c. 2. 10 ? 1021 sodium ions d. 1. 05 ? 1021 sodium ions e. 9. 52 ? 1020 sodium ions Answer: E 113. Determine the volume of hexane that contains 5. 33 ? 1022 molecules of hexane. The density of hexane is 0. 6548 g/mL and its molar mass is 86. 17 g/mol. a. 8. 59 mL b. 13. 5 mL c. 7. 40 mL d. 12. 4 mL e. 11. 6 mL Answer: E 114. Determine the molecular formula of a compound that has a molar mass of 92. 0 g/mol and an empirical formula of NO2. a. N2O3 b. N3O6 c. N2O4 d. NO2 e. N2O5 Answer: C 115. Determine the empirical formula for a compound that is 36. 86% N and 63. 14% O by mass. a. NO b. N2O c. NO2 d. N2O3 e. NO3 Answer: D 116. Write a balanced equation to show the reaction of gaseous ethane with gaseous oxygen to form carbon monoxide gas and water vapor. a. 2 C2H6(g) + 7 O2(g) > 4 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g) b. C2H6(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) c. 2 C2H6(g) + 5 O2(g) > 4 CO(g) + 6 H2O(g) d. C2H6(g) + 7 O(g) > 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(g) e. 2 CH3(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) Answer: C 117. Which of the following is one possible form of pentane? a. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 b. CH3CH=CHCH2CH3 c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 d. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 e. CH3CH2-O-CH2CH2CH3 Answer: A 118. List the elements in a hydrocarbon Answer: hydrogen and carbon 119. What type of bonding is found in the compound OF2? a. covalent bonding b. hydrogen bonding c. ionic bonding d. metallic bonding Answer: A 120. In which set do all elements tend to form cations in binary ionic compounds? a. K, Ga, O b. Sr, Ni, Hg c. N, P, Bi d. O, Br, I Answer: B 121. Rb2S is named a. rubidium disulfide. b. rubidium sulfide. c. rubidium(II) sulfide. d. rubidium sulfur. Answer: B 122. An aqueous solution of H2S is named a. hydrosulfuric acid. b. hydrosulfurous acid. c. sulfuric acid. d. sulfurous acid. Answer: A 123. What is the molar mass of nitrogen gas? a. 14. 0 g/mol b. 28. 0 g/mol c. 6. 02 ? 1023 g/mol d. 1. 20 ? 023 g/mol Answer: B 124. What mass of carbon dioxide, C O2, contains the same number of molecules as 3. 00 g of trichlorofluoromethane, CCl3F? a. 0. 106 g b. 0. 961 g c. 1. 04 g d. 9. 37 g e. Answer: B 125. Which of the following has the greatest mass? a. 3. 88 ? 1022 molecules of O2 b. 1. 00 g of O2 c. 0. 0312 mol of O2 d. All of the above have the same mass. Answer: A 126. A sample of pure calcium fluoride with a mass of 15. 0 g contains 7. 70 g of calcium. How much calcium is contained in 40. 0 g of calcium fluoride? a. 2. 27 g b. 7. 70 g c. 15. 0 g d. 20. 5 g Answer: D 127. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 62. % C, 10. 4% H, and 27. 5% O by mass? a. C3HO b. C6HO3 c. C6H12O2 d. C5H10O2 e. C3H6O Answer: E 128. How many oxygen atoms are there in 7. 00 g of sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7? a. 0. 187 oxygen atoms b. 2. 30 ? 1021 oxygen atoms c. 1. 60 ? 1022 oxygen atoms d. 1. 13 ? 1023 oxygen atoms Answer: D 129. Methane and oxygen react to form carbon dioxide and water. What mass of water is formed if 0. 80 g of methane reacts with 3. 2 g of oxygen to produce 2. 2 g of carbon dioxide? a. 1. 8 g b. 2. 2 g c. 3. 7 g d. 4. 0 g Answer: A 130. Combustion analysis of 1. 200 g of an unknown compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen produced 2. 86 g of CO2 and 1. 134 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? a. C2H5O b. C2H5O2 c. C2H10O3 d. C3H8O2 Answer: D 131. What is the stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen when the following equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number coefficients? _____ C2H6O (l) + _____ O2(g) > _____ CO2(g) + _____ H2O(l) a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3 Answer: D 132. Calcium phosphate reacts with sulfuric acid to form calcium sulfate and phosphoric acid. What is the coefficient for sulfuric acid when the equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-numbered coefficients? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. none of these Answer: C