Antimicrobial Activity of Oil Extract from Marang Seeds

Antimicrobial Activity of Oil Extract from Marang Seeds Antimicrobial Activity of Oil Extract from Marang Seeds (Artocarpus odoratissimus)  against Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus epidermidis Introduction Essential oils are widely gaining interest a component in medicinal products, food industry and pharmaceutical industry. Many studies were conducted to identify the antimicrobial, antifungal and insecticidal activities of essential oils obtained from plants. Essential oils have many therapeutic activities and they aid the distribution of drugs and antiseptics. Furthermore, the testing of plant extracts for its antimicrobial activity has always been of great attention to scientists looking for new sources for drugs for the treatment of various diseases (Nagala et al., 2013). Antimicrobial Compounds from Plants Phenols According to Cetin-Karaca (2011), phenolic compounds are one of the most diverse groups of secondary metabolites found in edible plants. They are found in a wide variety of fruits, vegetables, nuts, seeds, stems and flowers. There are different classes of polyphenols known as tannins, lignins and flavonoids. Cinnamic and caffeic acids are common representatives of a wide group of phenylpropane-derived compounds which are in the highest oxidation state. Herbs such as tarragon and thyme both contain caffeic acid that is effective against viruses, bacteria and fungi. Catechol and pyrogallol both are hydroxylated phenols, shown to be toxic to microorganisms. Catechol has two 2OH groups, and pyrogallol has three. The site(s) and number of hydroxyl groups on the phenol group are thought to be related to their relative toxicity to microorganisms, with evidence that increased hydroxylation results in increased toxicity (Cowan, 1999). Flavonoids Flavonoids are the most widely occurring polyphenol and are present in almost every form of human consumed vegetation. Flavonoids are potent antioxidants, free radical scavengers and metal chelators; they inhibit lipid peroxidation and exhibit various physiological activities including anti-inflammatory, anti-allergic, anti-carcinogenic, anti-hypertensive, anti-arthritic and antimicrobial activities (Cetin-Karaca, 2011). Flavonoids are also hydroxylated phenolic substances but occur as a C6-C3 unit linked to an aromatic ring. Since they are known to be synthesized by plants in response to microbial infection, it should not be surprising that they have been found in vitro to be effective antimicrobial substances against a wide array of microorganisms. Catechins, the most reduced form of the C3 unit in flavonoid compounds, have been extensively researched due to their occurrence in oolong green teas. It was noticed some time ago that teas exerted antimicrobial activity and that they contain a mixture of catechin compounds. These compounds inhibited in vitro Vibrio cholerae, Streptococcus mutans, Shigella and other bacteria and microorganisms (Cowan, 1999). Plant Extracts as Potential Antibacterial Agents Numerous studies investigated about the antimicrobial activity of plant extracts against a great number of bacterial species. Plant extracts were prepared from fresh or dried plant material using conventional extraction methods (Soxhlet extraction, maceration, percolation). Extraction is process of separation of active compounds from plant material using different solvents. During extraction, solvents diffuse into the plant material and solubilise compounds with similar polarity. At the end of the extraction, solvents have been evaporated, so that an extract is a concentrated mixture of plant active compounds. Successful extraction is largely dependent on the type of solvent used in the extraction procedure. Water extracts and extracts from organic solvents such as methanol, ethanol, acetone and chloroform are usually used. Diffusion and dilution method are two types of susceptibility test used to determine the antibacterial efficacy of plant extracts. Diffusion method is a qualitati ve test which allows classification of bacteria as susceptible or resistant to the tested plant extract according to size of diameter of the zone of inhibition. In dilution method, the activity of plant extracts is determined as Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC). MIC is defined as the lowest concentration able to inhibit bacterial growth (Stefanovic, et al., 2012). Marang (Artocarpus odoratissimus) Artocarpus odoratissimus is also known as Marang, Johey oak or Tarap which is a tropical fruit tree native to Asia. It belongs to the Moraceae family and is closely related to Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) and breadfruit (Artocarpus comminis). It originated in Borneo and has been introduced into neighbouring countries, including the Philippines, Malaysia and Thailand. It is an evergreen tree, which can grow up to 25 m tall and has a 40 cm diameter trunk with low buttresses. The leaves are broadly elliptic to obovate at around 16to 50cm long and 11to 28cmwide. They are cuneated at base to slightly decurrent, margin entire or shallowly crenate, and apex blunt or shortly acuminate. It is a monoecious plant so one plant is enough for the production of fruit. The fruit is green, ovoid in shape, quite large, averaging about 16 cm in length, 13 cm in diameter and weighing about 1 kg (KPR Gardeners Club, 2009). It is roundish oblong, regular, and thickly studded with short, brittle, g reenish yellow spines. The rind is thick and fleshy. The flesh is snowy white, very sweet when ripe, juicy and very aromatic. The flesh is separated into segments clinging to the central core and each segment contains a seed. The seeds are many, whitish, 8 Ãâ€" 15 mm in size, smooth surfaced and readily separated from the flesh (Subhadrabandhu, 2001). Escherichia coli Escherichia coliis the most prevalent infecting organism in the family of gram-negative bacteria known as enterobacteriaceae.E. coli is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium propelled by long, rapidly rotating flagella. Escherichia colibacteria were discovered in the human colon in 1885 by German bacteriologist Theodor Escherich. Dr. Escherich also showed that certain strains of the bacterium were responsible for infant diarrhea and gastroenteritis, an important public health discovery. AlthoughE. coli bacteria were initially called Bacterium coli, the name was later changed toEscherichia colito honor its discoverer (Clark, 2005). It is part of the normal flora of the mouth and gut and helps protect the intestinal tract from bacterial infection, aids in digestion, and produces small amounts of vitamins B12 and K. The bacterium, which is also found in soil and water, is widely used in laboratory research and is said to be the most thoroughly studied life form (The Columbia Electronic Encyclopedia, 2012). Staphylococcus epidermidis Staphylococcus epidermidis belongs to the genus Staphylococcus, and they are facultative anaerobes (Wiedemer, 2012). Staphylococcus epidermidis is a well characterized, non-fastidious, and it is a gram positive bacteria. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a coagulase – negative staphylococcus (CNS) they are found and colonizes the skin and the mucous membranes of the human body and they play an important part of it normal flora (Sousa et al., 2008). These species of staphylococcus secretes and produces a biofilm of polysaccharides that protects the cell against the host immune system or antibiotic treatments (Schjorring et al., 2002). These staphylococci are mainly dispersed during skin to skin contact using medical instruments and procedures. Staphylococcus epidermidis can cause infections in humans like meningitis, urinary tract infection (UTI) conjunctivitis, and endocarditis (Wiedemer, 2012). Bibliography Cetin-Karaca, H. (2011). Evaluation of Natural Antimicrobial Phenolic Compounds Against Foodborne Pathogens. University of Kentucky Masters Theses.Paper 652. Retrieved from http://uknowledge.uky.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1163context=gradschool_theses Clark, M. (2005). E. coli Food Poisoning: What is E. coli and how does it cause food poisoning? About E. coli. Retrieved from http://www.about-ecoli.com/. Retrieved on July 15, 2014. Cowan, M. (1999). Plant Products as Antimicrobial Agents. Clinical Microbiology Reviews Oct. 1999, p. 564–582. Retrieved from http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC88925/pdf/cm000564.pdf?origin=publication_detail KPR Gardeners Club. (2009). Breadfruit Artocarpus odoratissimus, Marang. Botanix – A Journal About Plants and Gardening. Retrieved from http://www.botanix.kpr.eu/en/index.php?text=6-breadfruit-artocarpus-odoratissimus-marang Nagala, S., Yekula, M. Tamanam, R. (2013). Antioxidant and gas chromatographic analysis of à ¯Ã‚ ¬Ã‚ ve varieties of jackfruit (Artocarpus) seed oils. Drug Invention Today 5 (2013) 315-320. Retrieved from http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0975761913000616 Schjorring, S., Ramos, A., Fraustrup, H., Hallin, P.F. (2002). Pathogenic investigation of Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis. Technical University of Denmark. Retrieved from http://www.cbs.dtu.dk/~pfh/files/mrsa.pdf Sousa,C., Teixeira, P. Oliveira, R. (2008). Influence of surface properties on the adhesion of Staphylococcus epidermidis to Acrylic and Silicone. International Journal of Biomaterials Volume2009(2009), Article ID718017, 9 pages doi:10.1155/2009/718017. Retrieved from http://www.hindawi.com/journals/ijbm/2009/718017/ Subhadrabandhu, S. (2001). Under-Utilized Tropical Fruits of Thailand. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations Regiona Office for Asia and the Pacific. Retrieved from http://www.fao.org/3/a-ab777e.pdf Stefanovic, et al. (2012). Antibacterial Activity of Naturally Occurring Compounds from Selected Plants. ISBN: 978-953-51-0723-1, InTech, DOI: 10.5772/33059. Retrieved from http://cdn.intechopen.com/pdfs/38642.pdf The Columbia Electronic Encyclopedia. (2012). Escherichia coli. Infoplease.com. Retrieved from http://www.infoplease.com/encyclopedia/science/escherichia-coli.html Wiedemer, C. (2012). Microbiology Unknown Lab Report. CPR St. Louis. Retrieved from http://aclsstlouis.com/3961/microbiology-unknown-lab-reports/

Essay --

BBPB2103 PENGURUSAN SUMBER MANUSIA Name : Vivi Sabrina binti mohamad Matric Number : 880605135214001 NRIC : 880605135214 Telephone : 014 8994208 E-mail address : Ketimau_jawak@yahoo.com.my Tutor’s name : Encik Dennis Ujoh Learning Centre : Sibu Learning Centre ISI KANDUNGAN KANDUNGAN MUKA SURAT 1.0 PENGENALAN 3 - 6 ï  ¶ JABATAN KEMAS DAERAH MATU DARO 2.0 PENGENALAN MODEL HACKMAN DAN OLDHAM 7 – 10 3.0 PENGENALAN TERHADAP TERAS KERJA DIMENSI 11 - 12 DAN TAHAP PEMIKIRAN YANG WUJUD DALAM SETIAP PERINGKAT PEKERJAAN ï  ¶ JABATAN KEMAS DAERAH MATU DARO 3.1 PERINGKAT PENGURUSAN ATASAN 3.2 PERINGKAT PENGURUSAN PERTENGAHAN 3.3 PERINGKAT PENGURUSAN BAWAHAN 4.0 CADANGAN BAGAIMANA KERJA DIMENSI TERAS (CJD) 13 - 15 BOLEH DIPERBAIKI UNTUK MENINGKATKAN TAHAP PSIKOLOGI KRITIKAL PEKERJA 4.1 MENGUBAH GAYA KEPIMPINAN 4.2 MENCORAK ATAU MENGUBAH CARA BEKERJA 4.3 AMALKAN BEKERJA DALAM KUMPULAN ATAU BERPASUKAN 4.4 KEPIMPINAN TRANSFORMASI 5.0 PENUTUP 16 - 17 RUJUKAN 1.0 PENGENALAN Rajah 1 : logo KEMAS Jabatan Kemajuan Masyarakat (KEMAS) tentunya tidak asing lagi bagi rakyat di Malaysia ini. Apabila terdengar perkataan KEMAS, tentunya terlintas di minda kita tentang prasekolah, tabika, kelas bimbingan orang-orang tua, kelas bimbingan kesejahteraan keluarga dan wanita, kelas bimbingan bina insan dan sebagainya. Melalui kelas prasekolah dan tabika, jabatan ini memainkan peranan yang sangat penting iaitu mendidik serta membimbing kanak-kanak supaya menjadi modal insan yang berguna serta permata negara yang harus digilap untuk kesejahteraan negara pada masa hadapan.Untuk mendidik serta membimbing masyarakat lain, pentadbiran di peringkat akar umbinya haruslah... ...a kepimpinan yang positif seharusnya dapat memberikan ciri kerja yang positif. (2590 patah perkataan.) RUJUKAN http://digilib.itb.ac.id/files/disk1/631/jbptitbpp-gdl-estiwuland-31515-2-2008ts-1.pdf http://zaini802856.blogspot.com/2011/11/reka-bentuk-kerja.html http://www.tsm.ac.id/JBA/JBA13.1April2011/1_artikel_jba13.1April2011.pdf http://eprints.utm.my/1436/1/JT37E%5B5%5D.pdf http://anggriana246.blogspot.com/2012/03/desain-pekerjaan.html http://www.psychologymania.com/2013/07/pengertian-karakteristik-pekerjaan.html http://www.jpa.gov.my/docs/spp/2011/spp142011.pdf http://forum.kompas.com/teras/47848-7-cara-mengembangkan-kreativitas-diri.html http://www.infinita-consulting.com/component/content/article/37-psikologi-industri/88-3-cara-meningkatkan-kepuasan-kerja-dan-team-work http://dedylondong.blogspot.com/2011/11/kepuasan-kerja-job-satisfaction.html

I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings Essay -- Maya Angelou

In the novel I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings, by Maya Angelou goes from a little southern black girl who wishes to be a â€Å"a long and blonde haired, light-blue eyed, white girl†, to a very mature young adult that is proud of her race. Throughout ’s (Maya’s) life she goes through many difficulties and triumphs. Some of which a person could never imagine of going through. Maya goes from being a very shy and strange black girl, to a certain and self-confident young woman. In I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings, by Maya Angelou, has to deal with prejudice, rape, and also the issues of abandonment in her course of becoming a mature woman. I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings takes place in the 1930s to the 1940s. During this time period Blacks were discriminated against. Being a child in this period, Maya experiences how difficult life is with prejudice people. For example, with all the discrimination going on, Maya wishes to be a white girl. She says â€Å"Wouldn’t they be surprised when one day I woke out of my black ugly dream, and my real hair, which was long and blond, would take the place of the kinky mass that Momma wouldn’t let me straighten? My light-blue eyes were going to hypnotize them.....Then they would understand why I had never picked up a Southern accent, or spoke the common slang, and why I had to be forced to eat pigs’ tails and snouts. Because I was really white and because a cruel fairy stepmother, who was understandably jealous of my beauty, had turned me into a too-big Negro girl, with nappy black hair, broad feet and a space between her teeth†. She experiences how mean an d harsh white people are to the black people. For example, Maya saw her grandmother â€Å"Momma† be insulted by a bunch of â€Å"powitetrash† kids. They were making fun of how she was standing on the front porch and how she was humming Church songs. After getting bored of mocking her, one of the girls had revealed herself to Momma. Throughout the whole episode Momma stood straight and stiff and kept humming her Hymns. This showed Maya that a black person doesn’t have to always react to what white people say or do towards them. Being strong and showing that a person is not afraid is the best thing to do when being harassed. Momma also contributes to Maya’s maturing by Maya starts to take pride in her race even with all the prejudice. Momma stands up and speaks out to the white dentist, which was... ...a lesbian or not. So, without help from her mother she goes to the first guy she sees and has sex with him. If her mother had not let her alone and guided her through this problem she would never had done this. In doing this she becomes pregnant. This is when Maya really matures and learns that she must grow up. Without any guidance through her life she never knew the difference between right or wrong. All the times that she was abandoned or not guided through her childhood resulted in her getting pregnant. If Maya was never abandoned from her parents and other people then maybe she would have never made these bad choices. During this time period and living in the South, it makes Maya’s life difficult to experience. She grows up very fast and learns about things that a normal child or teenager would not know at this time. She matures quickly by the discriminations, her rape, and being abandoned throughout her childhood. As a teenager, Maya seems to be an older woman becaus e of all the difficulties and the triumphs that she has gone through. Today, kids are growing up very quickly, and they need the help of adults and examples from adults to understand what’s going on around them. I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings Essay -- Maya Angelou In the novel I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings, by Maya Angelou goes from a little southern black girl who wishes to be a â€Å"a long and blonde haired, light-blue eyed, white girl†, to a very mature young adult that is proud of her race. Throughout ’s (Maya’s) life she goes through many difficulties and triumphs. Some of which a person could never imagine of going through. Maya goes from being a very shy and strange black girl, to a certain and self-confident young woman. In I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings, by Maya Angelou, has to deal with prejudice, rape, and also the issues of abandonment in her course of becoming a mature woman. I Know Why The Caged Bird Sings takes place in the 1930s to the 1940s. During this time period Blacks were discriminated against. Being a child in this period, Maya experiences how difficult life is with prejudice people. For example, with all the discrimination going on, Maya wishes to be a white girl. She says â€Å"Wouldn’t they be surprised when one day I woke out of my black ugly dream, and my real hair, which was long and blond, would take the place of the kinky mass that Momma wouldn’t let me straighten? My light-blue eyes were going to hypnotize them.....Then they would understand why I had never picked up a Southern accent, or spoke the common slang, and why I had to be forced to eat pigs’ tails and snouts. Because I was really white and because a cruel fairy stepmother, who was understandably jealous of my beauty, had turned me into a too-big Negro girl, with nappy black hair, broad feet and a space between her teeth†. She experiences how mean an d harsh white people are to the black people. For example, Maya saw her grandmother â€Å"Momma† be insulted by a bunch of â€Å"powitetrash† kids. They were making fun of how she was standing on the front porch and how she was humming Church songs. After getting bored of mocking her, one of the girls had revealed herself to Momma. Throughout the whole episode Momma stood straight and stiff and kept humming her Hymns. This showed Maya that a black person doesn’t have to always react to what white people say or do towards them. Being strong and showing that a person is not afraid is the best thing to do when being harassed. Momma also contributes to Maya’s maturing by Maya starts to take pride in her race even with all the prejudice. Momma stands up and speaks out to the white dentist, which was... ...a lesbian or not. So, without help from her mother she goes to the first guy she sees and has sex with him. If her mother had not let her alone and guided her through this problem she would never had done this. In doing this she becomes pregnant. This is when Maya really matures and learns that she must grow up. Without any guidance through her life she never knew the difference between right or wrong. All the times that she was abandoned or not guided through her childhood resulted in her getting pregnant. If Maya was never abandoned from her parents and other people then maybe she would have never made these bad choices. During this time period and living in the South, it makes Maya’s life difficult to experience. She grows up very fast and learns about things that a normal child or teenager would not know at this time. She matures quickly by the discriminations, her rape, and being abandoned throughout her childhood. As a teenager, Maya seems to be an older woman becaus e of all the difficulties and the triumphs that she has gone through. Today, kids are growing up very quickly, and they need the help of adults and examples from adults to understand what’s going on around them.

Hollywood and Nathaniel Wests The Day of the Locust Essay -- Nathanie

Hollywood and Nathaniel West's The Day of the Locust Works Cited Missing Although set in the 1930s, Nathanael West’s The Day of the Locust ironically resembles contemporary Hollywood. Within the glamorous setting of Hollywood, West’s characters take on multiple roles instead of assuming individual personalities. They put on and remove these imaginary personality masks, similar to those in the Commedia dell’Arte, to exhibit a range of emotions that only their character type would exhibit. Consequently, West’s characters are trapped in this restrictive atmosphere, especially at the end of the novel when they become part of a collective mob. In these manners, the characters in The Day of the Locust exhibit qualities akin to modern actors, proving that they are nothing more than a cast of personages rather than individuals. Hollywood is not simply a point on a map; it is a representation of the human experience. As with any other location, though, Hollywood’s history can be traced and analyzed up to present day. In 1887, Harvey Henderson Wilcox established a 120-acre ranch in an area northwest of Los Angeles, naming it â€Å"Hollywood† (Basinger 15). From then on, Hollywood grew from one man’s family to over 5,000 people in 1910. By then, residents around the ranch incorporated it as a municipality, using the name Hollywood for their village. While they voted to become part of the Los Angeles district, their village was also attracting motion-picture companies drawn in by the diverse geography of the mountains and oceanside (15). The Los Angeles area continues to flourish, now containing over nine million people, an overwhelming statistic compared to Wilcox’s original, family unit (U.S. Census Bureau 1). However, these facts only s... ...ic category. Instead, they have the freedom to shift between different roles and characters. In West’s The Day of the Locust, the characters exhibit traits most closely linked to these new types of Hollywood actors. Although he introduces them as types, he develops them throughout the novel with variable personalities. Todd’s emotions, for example, towards Faye range from sweetly romantic to vindictively dangerous. Yet, these variable personalities do not prove individuality, as the characters can all be labeled as characters, just like all actors are just actors at the end of every movie no matter what role they play. Unfortunately, West’s characters can never escape their fixed roles and established places in the narrative despite how often they attempt to change. They are forever stuck as modern actors in a 1930s Hollywood setting, and therein lies their tragedy. Hollywood and Nathaniel West's The Day of the Locust Essay -- Nathanie Hollywood and Nathaniel West's The Day of the Locust Works Cited Missing Although set in the 1930s, Nathanael West’s The Day of the Locust ironically resembles contemporary Hollywood. Within the glamorous setting of Hollywood, West’s characters take on multiple roles instead of assuming individual personalities. They put on and remove these imaginary personality masks, similar to those in the Commedia dell’Arte, to exhibit a range of emotions that only their character type would exhibit. Consequently, West’s characters are trapped in this restrictive atmosphere, especially at the end of the novel when they become part of a collective mob. In these manners, the characters in The Day of the Locust exhibit qualities akin to modern actors, proving that they are nothing more than a cast of personages rather than individuals. Hollywood is not simply a point on a map; it is a representation of the human experience. As with any other location, though, Hollywood’s history can be traced and analyzed up to present day. In 1887, Harvey Henderson Wilcox established a 120-acre ranch in an area northwest of Los Angeles, naming it â€Å"Hollywood† (Basinger 15). From then on, Hollywood grew from one man’s family to over 5,000 people in 1910. By then, residents around the ranch incorporated it as a municipality, using the name Hollywood for their village. While they voted to become part of the Los Angeles district, their village was also attracting motion-picture companies drawn in by the diverse geography of the mountains and oceanside (15). The Los Angeles area continues to flourish, now containing over nine million people, an overwhelming statistic compared to Wilcox’s original, family unit (U.S. Census Bureau 1). However, these facts only s... ...ic category. Instead, they have the freedom to shift between different roles and characters. In West’s The Day of the Locust, the characters exhibit traits most closely linked to these new types of Hollywood actors. Although he introduces them as types, he develops them throughout the novel with variable personalities. Todd’s emotions, for example, towards Faye range from sweetly romantic to vindictively dangerous. Yet, these variable personalities do not prove individuality, as the characters can all be labeled as characters, just like all actors are just actors at the end of every movie no matter what role they play. Unfortunately, West’s characters can never escape their fixed roles and established places in the narrative despite how often they attempt to change. They are forever stuck as modern actors in a 1930s Hollywood setting, and therein lies their tragedy.

Magnet Status

While many nurses are campaigning for staffing ratios, others are putting their hopes in a different kind of â€Å"magnet† – hospitals throughout North America (and one in the United Kingdom) that have received special designation by the American Nurses Association (ANA) through its American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC). Some supporters of the â€Å"Magnet hospital† concept view it as a substitute for ratios, others don’t. The term â€Å"Magnet† was coined in the 1980s, when researchers for the American Academy of Nursing (AAN), and ANA affiliate, began analyzing hospitals with a good record of nurse retention. The forty-six facilities studies in the original 1983 report were places where nurses, not surprisingly, said they liked to work. These hospitals had low turnover and vacancy rates, although they were located in areas with a lot of labor market competition for nurses (Gordon, 2005). Hospitals that act as a â€Å"magnet† for excellence creates a work surrounding that distinguish, rewards, and promote proficient nursing. Organization attributes that attract nurses to magnet hospitals support better patient care and outcomes, including a strong presence of nurses in patient care decision making, a high level collegiality between nurses and physicians, and more time for nurses to care for and teach patients, and the encouragement and expectation of critical thinking. Magnet designation is also an effective marketing tool for attracting patients and for recruiting and retaining quality nursing staff. Although the magnet designation provides numerous benefits for a hospital, the road to attaining it is not an easy one. The written application for magnet status must demonstrate how the hospital implements the Scope and Standards for Nursing Administrators and how it incorporates the forces of magnetism within nursing services. It can take two or more years to perform the assessment, compile the documentation, and have the site visit by magnet reviewers (Grossman, 2007). Some tips on making the journey to magnet designation a successful one include the following: –  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   Get buy-in front from executive management, nurse managers, and nursing staff –  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   Seek advice from other organizations that have navigated the process –  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   Organize the effort across all organizational levels and departments –  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   Establish a timeline to keep team efforts on track and promote team focus –  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚  Ã‚   Coordinate personality styles and team members’ strengths, teaming â€Å"thinkers† with â€Å"doers† Hospitals meet the magnet standards by having a flatter organizational structure that allows nurses more say in both patient care and how their jobs are designed, making the chief nursing officer part of the executive team, hiring more staff nurses and reducing or eliminating agency and travel nurses, and supporting top nurses in pursuing research and advanced degrees (Porche, 2005). References: Gordon, S. (2005). Nursing Against the Odds: How Health Care Cost Cutting, Media Stereotypes, and Medical Hubris Undermine Nurses and Patient Care. New York: Cornell University Press. Grossman, S. (2007). Mentoring in Nursing: A Dynamic and Collaborative Process. New York: Springer Publishing Comapny. Porche, R. A. (2005). Issues and Strategies for Nurse Leaders: Meeting Hospital Challenges Today. Oakbrook Terrace, IL: Joint Commission Resources.   

Abraham Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address Essay

â€Å"So powerful is the light of unity that it can illuminate the whole earth.†-Baha’u’llah. In his Second Inaugural Address, Abraham Lincoln sincerely suggests that all humans are more similar than assumed in order to reveal the causes of the Civil War and to italicize the fact that the nation should unite as one. The similarities of the North and South caused the war. Although both parties â€Å"deprecated† and â€Å"dreaded† war, one side â€Å"accepted† war while the other â€Å"made† war. Lincoln’s use of parallelism emphasizes the similarities between both parties, which ultimately are proven to be the main cause of the war. Along with parallelism, anaphora also plays a large role within Lincoln’s comparisons of the two parties. He often repeats words such as â€Å"both† and â€Å"neither,† which again, emphasizes the fact that both parties do, indeed, have similarities. Because both sides are so similar, they fail to acknowledge the fact that war is not needed; the bitter feelings toward war in which they both possess are the very feelings that keep them at war. The parties’ comparisons create friction, which in turn â€Å"rends† them â€Å"by war.† Lincoln appeals to authority by repeatedly referring to God. Lincoln suggests that the two sides are very similar because they both believe in the same higher power. Since both parties believe in the same higher power, it would be easier to come to an understanding, and hopefully, end the war. Lincoln’s use of antithesis compares and contrasts the two parties’ bitter feelings about war, and war itself. Their bitter feelings toward war created a war. Because the North and the South were so similar, it created friction, which was the main cause of the Civil War. Regardless of similarities or differences, the nation should unite as one. The only way to â€Å"heal the nation’s wounds† would be to come together as one nation. Lincoln appeals to beliefs of unity. Lincoln’s continuous reference to God and His relationship to everyone creates a feeling of oneness throughout the nation. Lincoln posits that everyone is the same in God’s eyes, and therefore He treats them the same way, regardless of what side of the nation they reside. Again, Lincoln uses anaphora to emphasize the idea  of oneness. He uses words such as â€Å"both,† â€Å"neither,† â€Å"we,† and â€Å"all† for these purposes. Lincoln only uses singular words, such as â€Å"I,† once to avoid further separation of the nation. In order for the â€Å"scourge of war† to cease, the nation should transition from being two separate halves, to one whole. Lincoln’s appeals to beliefs of fairness suggest that neithe r side was in total control. The nation should be equal. He also uses positive diction to give the audience a sense of hope. Regardless of how similar or different the nation is, it should still be united. The Civil War is a prime example of how one side’s misunderstanding of another can create friction. â€Å"United we stand; divided we fall.†- Aesop. Abraham Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address Essay The United States Civil War was initially clashed to bring the rebellious South back in to the Union according to Abraham Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address. In his speech Lincoln says, â€Å"..to saving the Union without war,† he means here that at his first inaugural address, everyone was trying to desperately avoid a civil war, but still would do anything to help their cause. Lincoln then goes on to say, â€Å"..accept war rather than let it perish.† Here is talking about how the North changed in the sense that they would do anything to help their cause, even if it means war. Lincoln’s reason for why the war was originally started was the fact that the North knew war was the only option to preserve the Union See more: Satirical essay about drugs Although President Abraham Lincoln originally said the cause of the war was to defend the Union, he then states that the new purpose of the war was to free the slaves. He says, â€Å"These slaves constituted a peculiar and powerful interest. All knew that this interest was, somehow, the cause of the war.† Lincoln specifically states here that slaves have all always been one of the greatest controversies of his time, and they ended up being the true purpose of the Civil War. Freeing slaves had always been an issue in America, only now, bloodshed was being cast in order to defend or uphold it. Lincoln’s post war plans for the Union are evident in this line, â€Å"let us strive on to finish the work we are in; to bind up the nation’s wounds; to care for him†¦to achieve†¦everlasting peace.† Abraham Lincoln brilliantly writes here that even if he beats up or wounds the South, he wants them back, as a part of the country. Also, not only does he want the South back, but he wants them to come back right away. Lincoln’s main goal was keeping the Union together, and he made sure his post-war plans continued this idea. Abraham Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address Essay In Abraham Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address, he uses many different kinds of rhetorical strategies to unite a broken nation. During the time of the speech, it is four years into the Civil War and it is about to end. In this speech, Lincoln uses allusion, parallel structure, and diction to unify the North and the South. A rhetorical strategy that is seen throughout Lincoln’s speech is allusion. He uses God and the Bible to show that the people both from the North and also the South have the same values. Lincoln says, â€Å"Each looked for an easier triumph, and a result less fundamental and astounding. Both read the same Bible and pray to the same God, and each invokes His aid against the other. It may seem strange that any men should dare to ask a just God’s assistance in wringing their bread from the sweat of other men’s faces, but let us judge not, that we be not judged.† What Lincoln said was from the Bible, and most people could relate because many of the citizens were very religious. Lincoln also states, â€Å"†¦ Let us strive on to finish the work we are in, to bind up the nation’s wounds†¦Ã¢â‚¬  That was also an allusion to the Bible, impacting the people to help fix the nation and to help come together as a nation. Religion was very important t o many citizens of that time, so the religious allusion used in the speech was very effective. Another strategy used in Lincoln’s address was parallel structure. The parallel structure emphasized what his goals were for the nation. For example, he says, â€Å"to see the right, let us strive on to finish the work we are in, to bind up the nation’s wounds, to care for him who shall have borne the battle and for his widow and his orphan, to do all which may achieve and cherish a just and lasting peace among ourselves and with all nations.† Abraham Lincoln’s goal was to establish peace again within the two sides and to rebuild the nation. Another example of allusion was at the beginning of the speech when Lincoln said, â€Å"All dreaded it, all sought to avert it.† He said, â€Å"all† to bring together both sides, saying that neither one wanted to fight, but now they have to come together to fix the â€Å"broken nation.† Lastly, Abraham Lincoln uses diction to create a feeling of unity between  the people. In his speech, Abraham says, â€Å"Both read the same Bible and pray to the same God.† Lincoln uses the word â€Å"both† often in his speech, which unifies the North and the South. It also says in his speech, â€Å"†¦let us strive on to finish the work we are in†¦Ã¢â‚¬  That statement reminds everyone that they’re all in it together by saying â€Å"us.† Diction throughout Abraham Lincoln’s speech adds onto the unity that was created by parallel structure and allusion. In Lincoln’s Second Inaugural Address, he uses religious allusion, encouraging parallel structure, and repetitive diction to unify the North and the South. Lincoln’s goal when giving this speech was not to celebrate the North’s win, but to unify and to create peace between the broken nation.

Chemistry 105 Practice Test: Answer Key

Chem 105 PracticeTest 1Note: There will not be this many questions on your test, I just wanted to give you as much practice as possible. Also, none of these exact questions will be on the test, just similar questions. Also, make sure you can do the homework, as I may have some questions similar to the homework questions. 1. Molecules can be described as a. a mixture of two or more pure substances. b. a mixture of two or more elements that has a specific ratio between components. c. two or more atoms chemically joined together. d. a heterogeneous mixture e. a homogeneous mixture Answer: C 2. Dalton's Atomic Theory states . that all elements have several isotopes. b. that matter is composed of small indestructible particles. c. that the properties of matter are determined by the properties of atoms. d. that energy is neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction. e. that an atom is predominantly empty space. Answer: B 3. Which of the following represents a hypothesis? a. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. b. Nitrogen gas is a fairly inert substance. c. Nickel has a silvery sheen. d. When a substance combusts, it combines with air. e. When wood burns, heat is given off. Answer: D 4. Which is true of a Scientific Theory (circle all that apply) a. It is an interpretation for an observation b. It is a general explanation for the manifestation and behavior of all nature c. It can be validated or invalidated by experiment and observation d. It describes why things happen Answer: B, C, and D 5. Mass (circle all that apply) a. Is dependent on location (gravity) b. Is the amount of matter in a substance and remains the same regardless of location c. can be measured by using a scale or balance d. is measured in ml Answer: B and C 6. The states of matter are a. Solid and gas b. Liquid and gas . Gas, solid, and liquid d. Gas, air, and vapor Answer: C 7. A liquid (circle all that apply) a. Has a definite volume b. Has particles that are less orderly and can move about freely c. Has particles that are tightly packed d. Has no definite volume or shape e. Answer: A and B 8. Identify dry ice as a solid, liquid, or gas. a. solid b. liquid c. gas d. both solid and liquid Answer: A 9. When a gas is cooled (circle all that apply) a. Its molecules have fewer energetic collisions b. The motion of the gas particles decrease c. The motion of gas particles increase d. Nothing happens to the gas particles Answer: A and B 10. Classify each of the following as a mixture or a pure substance: a. Carbon dioxide _____________________ b. Blood ______________________ c. Helium (He) ______________________ d. Sugar water _______________________ Answer: A-pure substance; B-mixture; C-pure substance; D-mixture 11. Choose the pure substance from the list below. a. sea water b. sugar c. air d. lemonade e. milk Answer: B 12. Choose the heterogeneous mixture from the list below. a. Gatorade b. chlorine gas c. black coffee d. chicken noodle soup e. carbon (graphite) Answer: D 13. Which of the following statements about crystalline and amorphous solids is TRUE? a. A crystalline solid is composed of atoms or molecules arranged with long-range repeating order. b. An example of a crystalline solid is glass. c. An example of an amorphous solid is table salt (NaCl). d. An amorphous solid is composed of atoms or molecules with a majority of its volume empty. e. All of the above statements are TRUE. Answer: A 14. A substance that can't be chemically broken down into simpler substances is considered to be a. a homogeneous mixture. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. compound. e. an electron. Answer: B 15. Two or more substances in variable proportions, where the composition is constant throughout are considered a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. e. a crystalline solid. Answer: D 16. Which of the following are examples of physical change? a. sugar is dissolved in water. b. coffee is brewed. c. dry ice sublimes. d. ice (solid water) melts. e. All of these are examples of physical change. Answer: E 17. Which of the following are examples of a chemical change? a. coffee brewing b. water boiling c. nails rusting d. alt dissolves in water e. None of the above are chemical changes. Answer: C 18. Which of the following represents a physical property? a. Sodium metal is extremely reactive with chlorine gas. b. Mercury is a silver liquid at room temperature. c. the tendency of aluminum to â€Å"rust† d. the flammability of butane fuel e. the unreactive nature of argon gas Answer: B 19. Define thermal energy. a. Energy associated with the temperature of an object. b. Energy associated with the motion of an object. c. Energy associated with the force of an object. d. Energy associated with the gravity of an object. e. Energy associated with the position of an object. Answer: A 20. Which of the following are examples of intensive properties? a. density b. volume c. mass d. None of the above are examples of intensive properties. e. All of the above are examples of intensive properties. Answer: A 21. If the temperature is 178 °F, what is the temperature in degrees celsius? a. 352 °C b. 451 °C c. 67 °C d. 81. 1 °C e. 378 °C Answer: D 22. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in  °F? a. 45 °F b. 298. 15 °F c. 77 °F d. -3. 89 °F Answer: C 23. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in K? a. 45 K b. 298 K c. 77 K . -3. 89 K Answer: B 24. Determine the density of an object that has a mass of 149. 8 g and displaces 12 . 1 mL of water when placed in a graduated cylinder. a. 8. 08 g/mL b. 1. 38 g/mL c. 12 . 4 g/mL d. 18. 1 g/mL e. 11. 4 g/mL Answer: C 25. A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains the following results: 4. 11 g/mL, 4. 81 g/mL, 4. 95 g/mL, 3. 75 g/mL. If the actual value for the density of the sugar solution is 4. 75 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results? a. Her results are precise, but not accurate. b. Her results are accurate, but not precise. . Her results are both precise and accurate d. Her results are neither precise nor accurate. e. It isn't possible to determine with the information given. Answer: D 26. Read the water level with the correct number of significant figures. a. 5 mL b. 5. 3 mL c. 5. 32 mL d. 5. 320 mL e. 5. 3200 mL Answer: B (Note: Remember, your last significant figure is the one that is uncertain. Because there are only whole number marks, the most certain significant figure is the 5, then we estimate where the meniscus of the liquid is between the 5 and the 6. This is why the correct reading is 5. 3, where the 3 is uncertain. If there were marks between the whole numbers, the correct answer would have 3 significant figures, since you could more accurately determine the volume. ) 27. Read the length of the metal bar with the correct number of significant figures. a. 20 cm b. 15 cm c. 15. 0 cm d. 15. 00 cm e. 15. 000 cm Answer: D 28. How many significant figures are in: 1009. 630 mL? a. 1009. 630 ml _____7______ b. 3. 408 x 104 m _____4_______ c. 0. 0005890 g ______4_______ 29. Complete the following calculations and report your answer with the correct number of significant figures: a. (249. 362 + 41)/63. 498 = ____4. 57________ b. 433. 621 + 0. 02 = ____433. 4_________ c. (965. 43 x 3. 911) + 9413. 4136 = ____1. 319 x 104 or 13190_____ 30. What wavelength of light would you report in units of nm, if the light had a wavelength of 7. 60 x 10-10 m? a. 7. 60 ? 10-3 nm b. 7. 60 ? 10-19 nm c. 1. 32 nm d. 0. 760 nm e. 760 nm Answer: D 31. How many cm3 are contained in 3. 77 ? 104 mm3? a. 3. 77 ? 104 cm3 b. 3. 77 ? 101 cm3 c. 3. 77 ? 10-10 cm3 d. 3. 77 ? 1020 cm3 e. 3. 77 ? 106 cm3 f. Answer: B 32. If a room requires 25. 4 square yards of carpeting, what is the area of the floor in units of ft2? (3 ft = 1 yd) a. 76. 2 ft2 b. 8. 47 ft2 c. 282 ft2 d. 229 ft2 e. 68. 6 ft2 Answer: D 33. Convert 15. km to miles. (use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test a. 24. 1 miles b. 9. 32 miles c. 591 miles d. 33. 1 miles e. Answer: B 34. Gas is sold for $1. 399 per liter in Toronto, Canada. Your car needs 12. 00 gallons. How much will your credit card be charged in dollars? ( use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test) a. $16. 79 b. $67. 15 c. $4. 44 d. $63. 54 Answer: D 35. Crude oil is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. Answer: C 3 6. NaCl is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. . a homogeneous mixture. Answer: A 37. A piece of metal ore weighs 8. 25 g. When a student places it into a graduated cylinder containing water, the liquid level rises from 21. 25 mL to 26. 47 mL. What is the density of the ore? a. 0. 312 g/mL b. 0. 633 g/mL c. 1. 58 g/mL d. 3. 21 g/mL Answer: C 38. A mass of mercury occupies 0. 950 L. What volume would an equal mass of ethanol occupy? The density of mercury is and the density of ethanol is 0. 789 g/mL. a. 0. 0553 L b. 0. 0613 L c. 16. 3 L d. 18. 1 L Answer: C 39. Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard exponential notation: 229. 13 a. 0. 2296 ? 103 b. 229. 6 c. 2. 296 ? 10-2 d. 2. 296 ? 102 e. 22. 96 ? 10-1 Answer: D 40. Round off 00907506 to four significant figures. a. 0091 b. 9076 c. 9100 d. 9. 075 ? 105 Answer: D 41. The diameter of an atom is approximately 1 ? 10-10 m. What is the diameter in millimeters? a. 1 ? 10-16 mm b. 1 ? 10-13 mm c. 1 ? 10-7 mm d. 1 ? 10-4 mm Answer: C 42. How many liters of wine can be held in a wine barrel whose capacity is 26. 0 gal? 1 gal = 4 qt = 3. 7854 L. a. 1. 46 ? 10-4 b. 0. 146 c. 98. 4 d. 6. 87 ? 103 e. 6. 87 Answer: C 43. 128) How many liters of air are in a room that measures 10. 0 x 11. 0 ft and has an 8. 0 ft ceiling? 1 in. = 2. 54 cm (exactly); 1 L = 103 cm3. a. 2. 49 ? 104 b. 92. 8 c. 26. 8 d. 2. 68 ? 107 e. 8. 84 ? 105 Answer: A 44. 1) Which of the following is an example of the law of multiple proportions? a. A sample of chlorine is found to contain three times as much Cl-35 as Cl-37. b. Two different compounds formed from carbon and oxygen have the following mass ratios: 1. 33 g O: 1 g C and 2. 66 g O: 1 g C. c. Two different samples of table salt are found to have the same ratio of sodium to chlorine. d. The atomic mass of bromine is found to be 79. 90 amu. e. Nitrogen dioxide always has a mass ratio of 2. 8 g O: 1 g N. Answer: B 45. Identify the element that has an atomic number of 40. a. neon b. calcium c. zirconium d. bromine Answer: C 46. The atomic mass for cadmium is a. 48 b. 112. 41 c. 40. 08 d. 20 Answer: B 47. The mass number is equal to a. the sum of the sum of the electrons and protons. b. the sum of the sum of the neutrons and electrons. c. the sum of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. d. the sum of the number of protons and neutrons. Answer: D 48. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 11n ° = 12 e- = 11 a. sodium b. vanadium c. magnesium d. titanium Answer: A 49. ) What does â€Å"X† represent in the following symbol? X a. silicon b. sulfur c. zinc d. ruthenium e. nickel Answer: A 50. 11) Determine the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the following: X a. p+ = 18n ° = 18e- = 22 b. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 18 c. p+ = 22n ° = 18e- = 18 d. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 40 e. p+ = 40 n ° = 22e- = 18 Answer: B 51. Identify a cation. a. An atom that has lost an electron. b. An atom that has gained an electron. c. An atom that has lost a proton. d. An atom that has gained a proton. Answer: A 52. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 17n ° = 20 e- = 17 a. calcium b. rubidium c. hlorine d. neon e. oxygen Answer: C 53. What species is represented by the following information? p+ = 17 n ° = 18 e- = 18 a. Cl b. Cl- c. Ar d. Ar+ e. Kr f. Answer: B 54. Give the number of electrons for carbon-14, with a -2 charge . a. 7 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: D 55. Predict the charge that an aluminum ion would have. a. 5- b. 1+ c. 1- d. 2+ e. 3+ Answer: E 56. Predict the charge that the ion formed from bromine would have. a. 1- b. 2+ c. 1+ d. 4+ e. 2- f. Answer: A 57. Which of the following elements is NOT a metal? a. Ba b. Mg c. Xe d. Pb e. Ga Answer: C 58. Which of the following elements is a noble gas? a. Ar b. Br c. N d. O e. K Answer: A 59. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal? a. Zn b. Xe c. F d. Li e. Ca Answer: D 60. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Anions are usually larger than their corresponding atom. b. Metals tend to form cations c. Atoms are usually larger than their corresponding cation. d. The halogens tend to form 1+ ions. e. Nonmetals tend to gain electrons. Answer: D 61. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonmetal? a. Tend to gain electrons b. Found in the upper right hand corner of the periodic table. c. Poor conductor of electricity d. Nonmetals are generally unreactive. e. Poor conductor of heat. Answer: D 62. Silver has an atomic mass of 107. 868 amu. The Ag-109 isotope (108. 905 amu) is 48. 16%. What is the amu of the other isotope? a. 106. 905 amu b. 106. 908 amu c. 106. 903 amu d. D) 106. 911 amu Answer: A 63. Which of the following contains the MOST atoms? You shouldn't need to do a calculation here. a. 10. 0 g Ne b. 10. 0 g He c. 10. 0 g Ar d. 10. 0 g Kr e. 10. 0 g Mg Answer: B 64. How many silver atoms are contained in 3. 75 moles of silver? a. 6. 23 ? 1024 silver atoms b. 2. 26 ? 1024 silver atoms c. 1. 61 ? 1023 silver atoms d. 2. 44 ? 1026 silver atoms e. 6. 50 ? 1025 silver atoms Answer: B 65. How many moles of potassium are contained in 449 g of potassium? a. 11. 5 moles b. 17. 6 moles c. 69. 2 moles d. 23. 9 moles e. 41. 5 moles Answer: A 66. What mass, in kg, does 5. 84 moles of titanium (Ti) have? a. 0. 352 kg b. 0. 122 kg c. 0. 820 kg d. 0. 280 kg e. 0. 632 kg Answer: D 67. How many moles of Cs are contained in 595 kg of Cs? a. 2. 23 ? 102 moles Cs b. 4. 48 ? 103 moles Cs c. 7. 91 ? 104 moles Cs d. 1. 26 ? 103 moles Cs e. 5. 39 ? 102 moles Cs Answer: B 68. How many iron atoms are contained in 354 g of iron? a. 2. 62 ? 1025 Fe atoms b. 2. 13 ? 1026 Fe atoms c. 4. 69 ? 1024 Fe atoms d. 3. 82 ? 1024 Fe atoms . 9. 50 ? 1022 Fe atoms Answer: D 69. Calculate the mass, in kg, of 4. 87 x 1025 atoms of Zn. a. 5. 29 kg b. 1. 89 kg c. 8. 09 kg d. 1. 24 kg e. 1. 09 kg Answer: A Match the following. A) Fe B) C C) Mg D) Si E) K 70. magnesium 71. carbon 72. potassium 73. iron 74. silicon Answers: 70) C 71) B 72) E 73) A 74) D 75. Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na. Answer: sodium 76. An atom of 131Xe contains ________ electrons. a. 131 b. 185 c. 77 d. 123 e. 54 Answer: E 77. An ion has 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 10 electrons. The symbol for the ion is ________. a. 17O2- b. 17O2+ c. 19F+ d. 19F- e. 17Ne2+ Answer: A 78. How many protons does the Br- ion possess? a. 34 b. 36 c. 6 d. 8 e. 35 Answer: E 79. Predict the charge of the most stable ion of potassium. a. 3+ b. 1- c. 2+ d. 2- e. 1+ Answer: E 80. What is the chemical symbol for mercury? a. Ag b. Au c. Hg d. Pb Answer: C 81. Which are isotopes? An atom that has an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 42 is an isotope of an atom that has a. an atomic number of 21 and a mass number of 42. b. an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 40. c. 22 neutrons and 20 protons. d. 22 protons and 20 neutrons. Answer: B 82. How many protons (p) and neutrons (n) are in an atom of Sr? a. 38 p, 52 n . 38 p, 90 n c. 52 p, 38 n d. 90 p, 38 n Answer: A 83. The mass number of an atom of 128Xe is ________. a. 54 b. 182 c. 74 d. 128 e. 120 Answer: D 84. What is the identity of element Q if the ion Q2+ contains 10 electrons? a. C b. O c. Ne d. Mg Answer: D 85. In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of electrons? a. F-, Ne, Mg2+ b. Ge, Se2-, Br- c. K+, Rb+, Cs+ d. Br, Br-, Br+ Answer: A 86. Argon belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. a. alkali metal b. alkaline earth metal c. halogen d. noble gas Answer: D 87. Which of the following elements has chemical properties similar to tellurium? . fluorine b. hydrogen c. nitrogen d. sulfur Answer: D 88. An ionic bond is best described as: a. the sharing of electrons. b. the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. c. the attraction that holds the atoms together in a polyatomic ion. d. the attraction between 2 nonmetal atoms. e. the attraction between 2 metal atoms. Answer: B 89. What is the empirical formula for C4H10O2? a. C2H5O b. CHO c. C2H4O d. CHO2 e. CH2O Answer: A 90. Write a possible molecular formula for C4H4O. a. C8H8O2 b. C12H12O2 c. C2H2O d. C8H8O Answer: A 91. Which of the following is an atomic element? a. Br b. H c. N d. O e. Mg Answer: E 92. Which of the following is a molecular element? a. Kr b. Ag c. S d. Mg e. Ti Answer: C 93. Which of the following is a molecular compound? a. CuCl2 b. KCl c. NaNO3 d. CH3Cl e. RbBr f. Answer: D 94. Which of the following is an ionic compound? a. SCl2 b. Mg3(PO4)2 c. Cl2O d. CH2O e. PF5 Answer: B 95. Write the formula for the compound formed between potassium and sulfur. a. KS b. KS2 c. K2S d. K2SO3 e. K3S2 Answer: C 96. Give the name for SnO. a. tin (I) oxide b. tin (II) oxide c. tin (III) oxide d. tin (IV) oxide Answer: B 97. Write the formula for strontium nitride. a. Sr3N2 b. Sr(NO3)2 c. SrN d. Sr2N3 e. Sr(NO2)2 Answer: A 98. Write the name for Sn(SO4)2. Remember that Sn forms several ions. a. tin (I) sulfite b. tin (IV) sulfate c. tin sulfide d. tin (II) sulfite e. tin (I) sulfate Answer: B 99. Determine the name for CoCl2†¢6H2O. Remember that Co forms several ions. a. cobalt chloride hydrate b. cobalt (I) chloride heptahydrate c. cobalt (II) chloride heptahydrate d. cobalt (II) chloride hexahydrate e. cobalt (I) chloride Answer: D 100. Write the formula for copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate. a. Cu2SO3†¢H5 b. Cu2S†¢H2O c. CuS†¢5H2O d. (CuSO4)5 e. CuSO4†¢5H2O Answer: E 101. Determine the name for H2CO3. a. carbonous acid b. dihydrogen carbonate c. carbonic acid . hydrocarbonic acid e. hydrocarbide acid Answer: C 102. Identify the formula for nitric acid. a. HNO3 b. HNO2 c. HNO d. HNO4 Answer: A 103. Determine the name for P4O10. a. phosphorus (IV) oxide b. diphosphorus pentoxide c. phosphorus oxide d. phosphorus (II) oxide e. tetraphosphorus decoxide Answer: E 104. Calculate the molar mass for Mg(ClO4)2. a. 223. 21 g/mol b. 123. 76 g/mol c. 119. 52 g/mol d. 247. 52 g/mol e. 75. 76 g/mol Answer: A 105. Calculate the molar mass of Al(C2H3O2)3. a. 86. 03 g/mol b. 204. 13 g/mol c. 56. 00 g/mol d. 258. 09 g/mol e. 139. 99 g/mol Answer: B 106. How many millimoles of Ca(NO3)2 contain 4. 8 ? 1022 formula units of Ca(NO3)2? The molar mass of Ca(NO3)2 is 164. 10 g/mol. a. 12. 6 mmol Ca(NO3)2 b. 13. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 c. 20. 7 mmol Ca(NO3)2 d. 79. 4 mmol Ca(NO3)2 e. 57. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 Answer: D 107. How many C2H4 molecules are contained in 45. 8 mg of C2H4? The molar mass of C2H4 is 28. 05 g/mol. a. 9. 83 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules b. 7. 74 ? 1026 C2H4 molecules c. 2. 71 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules d. 3. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules e. 4. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules Answer: A 108. What is the mass of 9. 44 ? 1024 molecules of NO2? The molar mass of NO2 is 46. 01 g/mol. a. 205 g b. 294 g c. 721 g d. 341 g e. 685 g Answer: C 109. Calculate the mass percent composition of sulfur in Al2(SO4)3. a. 28. 12 % b. 9. 372 % c. 42. 73 % d. 21. 38 % e. 35. 97 % Answer: A 110. How many moles of N2O3 contain 2. 55 ? 1024 oxygen atoms? (change the molecule) a. 1. 41 moles N2O3 b. 4. 23 moles N2O3 c. 12. 7 moles N2O3 d. 7. 87 moles N2O3 e. 2. 82 moles N2O3 Answer: A 111. How many moles of PCl3 contain 3. 68 ? 1025 chlorine atoms? a. 61. 1 moles PCl3 b. 20. 4 moles PCl3 c. 16. 4 moles PCl3 d. 54. 5 moles PCl3 e. 49. 1 moles PCl3 Answer: B 112. How many sodium ions are contained in 99. 6 mg of Na2SO3? The molar mass of Na2SO3 is 126. 05 g/mol. a. 1. 52 ? 1027 sodium ions . 4. 76 ? 1020 sodium ions c. 2. 10 ? 1021 sodium ions d. 1. 05 ? 1021 sodium ions e. 9. 52 ? 1020 sodium ions Answer: E 113. Determine the volume of hexane that contains 5. 33 ? 1022 molecules of hexane. The density of hexane is 0. 6548 g/mL and its molar mass is 86. 17 g/mol. a. 8. 59 mL b. 13. 5 mL c. 7. 40 mL d. 12. 4 mL e. 11. 6 mL Answer: E 114. Determine the molecular formula of a compound that has a molar mass of 92. 0 g/mol and an empirical formula of NO2. a. N2O3 b. N3O6 c. N2O4 d. NO2 e. N2O5 Answer: C 115. Determine the empirical formula for a compound that is 36. 86% N and 63. 14% O by mass. a. NO b. N2O c. NO2 d. N2O3 e. NO3 Answer: D 116. Write a balanced equation to show the reaction of gaseous ethane with gaseous oxygen to form carbon monoxide gas and water vapor. a. 2 C2H6(g) + 7 O2(g) > 4 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g) b. C2H6(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) c. 2 C2H6(g) + 5 O2(g) > 4 CO(g) + 6 H2O(g) d. C2H6(g) + 7 O(g) > 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(g) e. 2 CH3(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) Answer: C 117. Which of the following is one possible form of pentane? a. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 b. CH3CH=CHCH2CH3 c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 d. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 e. CH3CH2-O-CH2CH2CH3 Answer: A 118. List the elements in a hydrocarbon Answer: hydrogen and carbon 119. What type of bonding is found in the compound OF2? a. covalent bonding b. hydrogen bonding c. ionic bonding d. metallic bonding Answer: A 120. In which set do all elements tend to form cations in binary ionic compounds? a. K, Ga, O b. Sr, Ni, Hg c. N, P, Bi d. O, Br, I Answer: B 121. Rb2S is named a. rubidium disulfide. b. rubidium sulfide. c. rubidium(II) sulfide. d. rubidium sulfur. Answer: B 122. An aqueous solution of H2S is named a. hydrosulfuric acid. b. hydrosulfurous acid. c. sulfuric acid. d. sulfurous acid. Answer: A 123. What is the molar mass of nitrogen gas? a. 14. 0 g/mol b. 28. 0 g/mol c. 6. 02 ? 1023 g/mol d. 1. 20 ? 023 g/mol Answer: B 124. What mass of carbon dioxide, C O2, contains the same number of molecules as 3. 00 g of trichlorofluoromethane, CCl3F? a. 0. 106 g b. 0. 961 g c. 1. 04 g d. 9. 37 g e. Answer: B 125. Which of the following has the greatest mass? a. 3. 88 ? 1022 molecules of O2 b. 1. 00 g of O2 c. 0. 0312 mol of O2 d. All of the above have the same mass. Answer: A 126. A sample of pure calcium fluoride with a mass of 15. 0 g contains 7. 70 g of calcium. How much calcium is contained in 40. 0 g of calcium fluoride? a. 2. 27 g b. 7. 70 g c. 15. 0 g d. 20. 5 g Answer: D 127. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 62. % C, 10. 4% H, and 27. 5% O by mass? a. C3HO b. C6HO3 c. C6H12O2 d. C5H10O2 e. C3H6O Answer: E 128. How many oxygen atoms are there in 7. 00 g of sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7? a. 0. 187 oxygen atoms b. 2. 30 ? 1021 oxygen atoms c. 1. 60 ? 1022 oxygen atoms d. 1. 13 ? 1023 oxygen atoms Answer: D 129. Methane and oxygen react to form carbon dioxide and water. What mass of water is formed if 0. 80 g of methane reacts with 3. 2 g of oxygen to produce 2. 2 g of carbon dioxide? a. 1. 8 g b. 2. 2 g c. 3. 7 g d. 4. 0 g Answer: A 130. Combustion analysis of 1. 200 g of an unknown compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen produced 2. 86 g of CO2 and 1. 134 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? a. C2H5O b. C2H5O2 c. C2H10O3 d. C3H8O2 Answer: D 131. What is the stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen when the following equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number coefficients? _____ C2H6O (l) + _____ O2(g) > _____ CO2(g) + _____ H2O(l) a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3 Answer: D 132. Calcium phosphate reacts with sulfuric acid to form calcium sulfate and phosphoric acid. What is the coefficient for sulfuric acid when the equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-numbered coefficients? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. none of these Answer: C Chemistry 105 Practice Test: Answer Key Chem 105 PracticeTest 1Note: There will not be this many questions on your test, I just wanted to give you as much practice as possible. Also, none of these exact questions will be on the test, just similar questions. Also, make sure you can do the homework, as I may have some questions similar to the homework questions. 1. Molecules can be described as a. a mixture of two or more pure substances. b. a mixture of two or more elements that has a specific ratio between components. c. two or more atoms chemically joined together. d. a heterogeneous mixture e. a homogeneous mixture Answer: C 2. Dalton's Atomic Theory states . that all elements have several isotopes. b. that matter is composed of small indestructible particles. c. that the properties of matter are determined by the properties of atoms. d. that energy is neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction. e. that an atom is predominantly empty space. Answer: B 3. Which of the following represents a hypothesis? a. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. b. Nitrogen gas is a fairly inert substance. c. Nickel has a silvery sheen. d. When a substance combusts, it combines with air. e. When wood burns, heat is given off. Answer: D 4. Which is true of a Scientific Theory (circle all that apply) a. It is an interpretation for an observation b. It is a general explanation for the manifestation and behavior of all nature c. It can be validated or invalidated by experiment and observation d. It describes why things happen Answer: B, C, and D 5. Mass (circle all that apply) a. Is dependent on location (gravity) b. Is the amount of matter in a substance and remains the same regardless of location c. can be measured by using a scale or balance d. is measured in ml Answer: B and C 6. The states of matter are a. Solid and gas b. Liquid and gas . Gas, solid, and liquid d. Gas, air, and vapor Answer: C 7. A liquid (circle all that apply) a. Has a definite volume b. Has particles that are less orderly and can move about freely c. Has particles that are tightly packed d. Has no definite volume or shape e. Answer: A and B 8. Identify dry ice as a solid, liquid, or gas. a. solid b. liquid c. gas d. both solid and liquid Answer: A 9. When a gas is cooled (circle all that apply) a. Its molecules have fewer energetic collisions b. The motion of the gas particles decrease c. The motion of gas particles increase d. Nothing happens to the gas particles Answer: A and B 10. Classify each of the following as a mixture or a pure substance: a. Carbon dioxide _____________________ b. Blood ______________________ c. Helium (He) ______________________ d. Sugar water _______________________ Answer: A-pure substance; B-mixture; C-pure substance; D-mixture 11. Choose the pure substance from the list below. a. sea water b. sugar c. air d. lemonade e. milk Answer: B 12. Choose the heterogeneous mixture from the list below. a. Gatorade b. chlorine gas c. black coffee d. chicken noodle soup e. carbon (graphite) Answer: D 13. Which of the following statements about crystalline and amorphous solids is TRUE? a. A crystalline solid is composed of atoms or molecules arranged with long-range repeating order. b. An example of a crystalline solid is glass. c. An example of an amorphous solid is table salt (NaCl). d. An amorphous solid is composed of atoms or molecules with a majority of its volume empty. e. All of the above statements are TRUE. Answer: A 14. A substance that can't be chemically broken down into simpler substances is considered to be a. a homogeneous mixture. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. compound. e. an electron. Answer: B 15. Two or more substances in variable proportions, where the composition is constant throughout are considered a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. e. a crystalline solid. Answer: D 16. Which of the following are examples of physical change? a. sugar is dissolved in water. b. coffee is brewed. c. dry ice sublimes. d. ice (solid water) melts. e. All of these are examples of physical change. Answer: E 17. Which of the following are examples of a chemical change? a. coffee brewing b. water boiling c. nails rusting d. alt dissolves in water e. None of the above are chemical changes. Answer: C 18. Which of the following represents a physical property? a. Sodium metal is extremely reactive with chlorine gas. b. Mercury is a silver liquid at room temperature. c. the tendency of aluminum to â€Å"rust† d. the flammability of butane fuel e. the unreactive nature of argon gas Answer: B 19. Define thermal energy. a. Energy associated with the temperature of an object. b. Energy associated with the motion of an object. c. Energy associated with the force of an object. d. Energy associated with the gravity of an object. e. Energy associated with the position of an object. Answer: A 20. Which of the following are examples of intensive properties? a. density b. volume c. mass d. None of the above are examples of intensive properties. e. All of the above are examples of intensive properties. Answer: A 21. If the temperature is 178 °F, what is the temperature in degrees celsius? a. 352 °C b. 451 °C c. 67 °C d. 81. 1 °C e. 378 °C Answer: D 22. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in  °F? a. 45 °F b. 298. 15 °F c. 77 °F d. -3. 89 °F Answer: C 23. If the temperature is 25 °C, what is the temperature in K? a. 45 K b. 298 K c. 77 K . -3. 89 K Answer: B 24. Determine the density of an object that has a mass of 149. 8 g and displaces 12 . 1 mL of water when placed in a graduated cylinder. a. 8. 08 g/mL b. 1. 38 g/mL c. 12 . 4 g/mL d. 18. 1 g/mL e. 11. 4 g/mL Answer: C 25. A student performs an experiment to determine the density of a sugar solution. She obtains the following results: 4. 11 g/mL, 4. 81 g/mL, 4. 95 g/mL, 3. 75 g/mL. If the actual value for the density of the sugar solution is 4. 75 g/mL, which statement below best describes her results? a. Her results are precise, but not accurate. b. Her results are accurate, but not precise. . Her results are both precise and accurate d. Her results are neither precise nor accurate. e. It isn't possible to determine with the information given. Answer: D 26. Read the water level with the correct number of significant figures. a. 5 mL b. 5. 3 mL c. 5. 32 mL d. 5. 320 mL e. 5. 3200 mL Answer: B (Note: Remember, your last significant figure is the one that is uncertain. Because there are only whole number marks, the most certain significant figure is the 5, then we estimate where the meniscus of the liquid is between the 5 and the 6. This is why the correct reading is 5. 3, where the 3 is uncertain. If there were marks between the whole numbers, the correct answer would have 3 significant figures, since you could more accurately determine the volume. ) 27. Read the length of the metal bar with the correct number of significant figures. a. 20 cm b. 15 cm c. 15. 0 cm d. 15. 00 cm e. 15. 000 cm Answer: D 28. How many significant figures are in: 1009. 630 mL? a. 1009. 630 ml _____7______ b. 3. 408 x 104 m _____4_______ c. 0. 0005890 g ______4_______ 29. Complete the following calculations and report your answer with the correct number of significant figures: a. (249. 362 + 41)/63. 498 = ____4. 57________ b. 433. 621 + 0. 02 = ____433. 4_________ c. (965. 43 x 3. 911) + 9413. 4136 = ____1. 319 x 104 or 13190_____ 30. What wavelength of light would you report in units of nm, if the light had a wavelength of 7. 60 x 10-10 m? a. 7. 60 ? 10-3 nm b. 7. 60 ? 10-19 nm c. 1. 32 nm d. 0. 760 nm e. 760 nm Answer: D 31. How many cm3 are contained in 3. 77 ? 104 mm3? a. 3. 77 ? 104 cm3 b. 3. 77 ? 101 cm3 c. 3. 77 ? 10-10 cm3 d. 3. 77 ? 1020 cm3 e. 3. 77 ? 106 cm3 f. Answer: B 32. If a room requires 25. 4 square yards of carpeting, what is the area of the floor in units of ft2? (3 ft = 1 yd) a. 76. 2 ft2 b. 8. 47 ft2 c. 282 ft2 d. 229 ft2 e. 68. 6 ft2 Answer: D 33. Convert 15. km to miles. (use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test a. 24. 1 miles b. 9. 32 miles c. 591 miles d. 33. 1 miles e. Answer: B 34. Gas is sold for $1. 399 per liter in Toronto, Canada. Your car needs 12. 00 gallons. How much will your credit card be charged in dollars? ( use conversions in the back of your book. These will be given for the test) a. $16. 79 b. $67. 15 c. $4. 44 d. $63. 54 Answer: D 35. Crude oil is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. d. a homogeneous mixture. Answer: C 3 6. NaCl is an example of a. a compound. b. an element. c. a heterogeneous mixture. . a homogeneous mixture. Answer: A 37. A piece of metal ore weighs 8. 25 g. When a student places it into a graduated cylinder containing water, the liquid level rises from 21. 25 mL to 26. 47 mL. What is the density of the ore? a. 0. 312 g/mL b. 0. 633 g/mL c. 1. 58 g/mL d. 3. 21 g/mL Answer: C 38. A mass of mercury occupies 0. 950 L. What volume would an equal mass of ethanol occupy? The density of mercury is and the density of ethanol is 0. 789 g/mL. a. 0. 0553 L b. 0. 0613 L c. 16. 3 L d. 18. 1 L Answer: C 39. Round the following number to four significant figures and express the result in standard exponential notation: 229. 13 a. 0. 2296 ? 103 b. 229. 6 c. 2. 296 ? 10-2 d. 2. 296 ? 102 e. 22. 96 ? 10-1 Answer: D 40. Round off 00907506 to four significant figures. a. 0091 b. 9076 c. 9100 d. 9. 075 ? 105 Answer: D 41. The diameter of an atom is approximately 1 ? 10-10 m. What is the diameter in millimeters? a. 1 ? 10-16 mm b. 1 ? 10-13 mm c. 1 ? 10-7 mm d. 1 ? 10-4 mm Answer: C 42. How many liters of wine can be held in a wine barrel whose capacity is 26. 0 gal? 1 gal = 4 qt = 3. 7854 L. a. 1. 46 ? 10-4 b. 0. 146 c. 98. 4 d. 6. 87 ? 103 e. 6. 87 Answer: C 43. 128) How many liters of air are in a room that measures 10. 0 x 11. 0 ft and has an 8. 0 ft ceiling? 1 in. = 2. 54 cm (exactly); 1 L = 103 cm3. a. 2. 49 ? 104 b. 92. 8 c. 26. 8 d. 2. 68 ? 107 e. 8. 84 ? 105 Answer: A 44. 1) Which of the following is an example of the law of multiple proportions? a. A sample of chlorine is found to contain three times as much Cl-35 as Cl-37. b. Two different compounds formed from carbon and oxygen have the following mass ratios: 1. 33 g O: 1 g C and 2. 66 g O: 1 g C. c. Two different samples of table salt are found to have the same ratio of sodium to chlorine. d. The atomic mass of bromine is found to be 79. 90 amu. e. Nitrogen dioxide always has a mass ratio of 2. 8 g O: 1 g N. Answer: B 45. Identify the element that has an atomic number of 40. a. neon b. calcium c. zirconium d. bromine Answer: C 46. The atomic mass for cadmium is a. 48 b. 112. 41 c. 40. 08 d. 20 Answer: B 47. The mass number is equal to a. the sum of the sum of the electrons and protons. b. the sum of the sum of the neutrons and electrons. c. the sum of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons. d. the sum of the number of protons and neutrons. Answer: D 48. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 11n ° = 12 e- = 11 a. sodium b. vanadium c. magnesium d. titanium Answer: A 49. ) What does â€Å"X† represent in the following symbol? X a. silicon b. sulfur c. zinc d. ruthenium e. nickel Answer: A 50. 11) Determine the number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the following: X a. p+ = 18n ° = 18e- = 22 b. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 18 c. p+ = 22n ° = 18e- = 18 d. p+ = 18n ° = 22e- = 40 e. p+ = 40 n ° = 22e- = 18 Answer: B 51. Identify a cation. a. An atom that has lost an electron. b. An atom that has gained an electron. c. An atom that has lost a proton. d. An atom that has gained a proton. Answer: A 52. What element is defined by the following information? p+ = 17n ° = 20 e- = 17 a. calcium b. rubidium c. hlorine d. neon e. oxygen Answer: C 53. What species is represented by the following information? p+ = 17 n ° = 18 e- = 18 a. Cl b. Cl- c. Ar d. Ar+ e. Kr f. Answer: B 54. Give the number of electrons for carbon-14, with a -2 charge . a. 7 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: D 55. Predict the charge that an aluminum ion would have. a. 5- b. 1+ c. 1- d. 2+ e. 3+ Answer: E 56. Predict the charge that the ion formed from bromine would have. a. 1- b. 2+ c. 1+ d. 4+ e. 2- f. Answer: A 57. Which of the following elements is NOT a metal? a. Ba b. Mg c. Xe d. Pb e. Ga Answer: C 58. Which of the following elements is a noble gas? a. Ar b. Br c. N d. O e. K Answer: A 59. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal? a. Zn b. Xe c. F d. Li e. Ca Answer: D 60. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Anions are usually larger than their corresponding atom. b. Metals tend to form cations c. Atoms are usually larger than their corresponding cation. d. The halogens tend to form 1+ ions. e. Nonmetals tend to gain electrons. Answer: D 61. Which of the following does NOT describe a nonmetal? a. Tend to gain electrons b. Found in the upper right hand corner of the periodic table. c. Poor conductor of electricity d. Nonmetals are generally unreactive. e. Poor conductor of heat. Answer: D 62. Silver has an atomic mass of 107. 868 amu. The Ag-109 isotope (108. 905 amu) is 48. 16%. What is the amu of the other isotope? a. 106. 905 amu b. 106. 908 amu c. 106. 903 amu d. D) 106. 911 amu Answer: A 63. Which of the following contains the MOST atoms? You shouldn't need to do a calculation here. a. 10. 0 g Ne b. 10. 0 g He c. 10. 0 g Ar d. 10. 0 g Kr e. 10. 0 g Mg Answer: B 64. How many silver atoms are contained in 3. 75 moles of silver? a. 6. 23 ? 1024 silver atoms b. 2. 26 ? 1024 silver atoms c. 1. 61 ? 1023 silver atoms d. 2. 44 ? 1026 silver atoms e. 6. 50 ? 1025 silver atoms Answer: B 65. How many moles of potassium are contained in 449 g of potassium? a. 11. 5 moles b. 17. 6 moles c. 69. 2 moles d. 23. 9 moles e. 41. 5 moles Answer: A 66. What mass, in kg, does 5. 84 moles of titanium (Ti) have? a. 0. 352 kg b. 0. 122 kg c. 0. 820 kg d. 0. 280 kg e. 0. 632 kg Answer: D 67. How many moles of Cs are contained in 595 kg of Cs? a. 2. 23 ? 102 moles Cs b. 4. 48 ? 103 moles Cs c. 7. 91 ? 104 moles Cs d. 1. 26 ? 103 moles Cs e. 5. 39 ? 102 moles Cs Answer: B 68. How many iron atoms are contained in 354 g of iron? a. 2. 62 ? 1025 Fe atoms b. 2. 13 ? 1026 Fe atoms c. 4. 69 ? 1024 Fe atoms d. 3. 82 ? 1024 Fe atoms . 9. 50 ? 1022 Fe atoms Answer: D 69. Calculate the mass, in kg, of 4. 87 x 1025 atoms of Zn. a. 5. 29 kg b. 1. 89 kg c. 8. 09 kg d. 1. 24 kg e. 1. 09 kg Answer: A Match the following. A) Fe B) C C) Mg D) Si E) K 70. magnesium 71. carbon 72. potassium 73. iron 74. silicon Answers: 70) C 71) B 72) E 73) A 74) D 75. Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na. Answer: sodium 76. An atom of 131Xe contains ________ electrons. a. 131 b. 185 c. 77 d. 123 e. 54 Answer: E 77. An ion has 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 10 electrons. The symbol for the ion is ________. a. 17O2- b. 17O2+ c. 19F+ d. 19F- e. 17Ne2+ Answer: A 78. How many protons does the Br- ion possess? a. 34 b. 36 c. 6 d. 8 e. 35 Answer: E 79. Predict the charge of the most stable ion of potassium. a. 3+ b. 1- c. 2+ d. 2- e. 1+ Answer: E 80. What is the chemical symbol for mercury? a. Ag b. Au c. Hg d. Pb Answer: C 81. Which are isotopes? An atom that has an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 42 is an isotope of an atom that has a. an atomic number of 21 and a mass number of 42. b. an atomic number of 20 and a mass number of 40. c. 22 neutrons and 20 protons. d. 22 protons and 20 neutrons. Answer: B 82. How many protons (p) and neutrons (n) are in an atom of Sr? a. 38 p, 52 n . 38 p, 90 n c. 52 p, 38 n d. 90 p, 38 n Answer: A 83. The mass number of an atom of 128Xe is ________. a. 54 b. 182 c. 74 d. 128 e. 120 Answer: D 84. What is the identity of element Q if the ion Q2+ contains 10 electrons? a. C b. O c. Ne d. Mg Answer: D 85. In which of the following sets do all species have the same number of electrons? a. F-, Ne, Mg2+ b. Ge, Se2-, Br- c. K+, Rb+, Cs+ d. Br, Br-, Br+ Answer: A 86. Argon belongs to the ________ group of the periodic table. a. alkali metal b. alkaline earth metal c. halogen d. noble gas Answer: D 87. Which of the following elements has chemical properties similar to tellurium? . fluorine b. hydrogen c. nitrogen d. sulfur Answer: D 88. An ionic bond is best described as: a. the sharing of electrons. b. the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. c. the attraction that holds the atoms together in a polyatomic ion. d. the attraction between 2 nonmetal atoms. e. the attraction between 2 metal atoms. Answer: B 89. What is the empirical formula for C4H10O2? a. C2H5O b. CHO c. C2H4O d. CHO2 e. CH2O Answer: A 90. Write a possible molecular formula for C4H4O. a. C8H8O2 b. C12H12O2 c. C2H2O d. C8H8O Answer: A 91. Which of the following is an atomic element? a. Br b. H c. N d. O e. Mg Answer: E 92. Which of the following is a molecular element? a. Kr b. Ag c. S d. Mg e. Ti Answer: C 93. Which of the following is a molecular compound? a. CuCl2 b. KCl c. NaNO3 d. CH3Cl e. RbBr f. Answer: D 94. Which of the following is an ionic compound? a. SCl2 b. Mg3(PO4)2 c. Cl2O d. CH2O e. PF5 Answer: B 95. Write the formula for the compound formed between potassium and sulfur. a. KS b. KS2 c. K2S d. K2SO3 e. K3S2 Answer: C 96. Give the name for SnO. a. tin (I) oxide b. tin (II) oxide c. tin (III) oxide d. tin (IV) oxide Answer: B 97. Write the formula for strontium nitride. a. Sr3N2 b. Sr(NO3)2 c. SrN d. Sr2N3 e. Sr(NO2)2 Answer: A 98. Write the name for Sn(SO4)2. Remember that Sn forms several ions. a. tin (I) sulfite b. tin (IV) sulfate c. tin sulfide d. tin (II) sulfite e. tin (I) sulfate Answer: B 99. Determine the name for CoCl2†¢6H2O. Remember that Co forms several ions. a. cobalt chloride hydrate b. cobalt (I) chloride heptahydrate c. cobalt (II) chloride heptahydrate d. cobalt (II) chloride hexahydrate e. cobalt (I) chloride Answer: D 100. Write the formula for copper (II) sulfate pentahydrate. a. Cu2SO3†¢H5 b. Cu2S†¢H2O c. CuS†¢5H2O d. (CuSO4)5 e. CuSO4†¢5H2O Answer: E 101. Determine the name for H2CO3. a. carbonous acid b. dihydrogen carbonate c. carbonic acid . hydrocarbonic acid e. hydrocarbide acid Answer: C 102. Identify the formula for nitric acid. a. HNO3 b. HNO2 c. HNO d. HNO4 Answer: A 103. Determine the name for P4O10. a. phosphorus (IV) oxide b. diphosphorus pentoxide c. phosphorus oxide d. phosphorus (II) oxide e. tetraphosphorus decoxide Answer: E 104. Calculate the molar mass for Mg(ClO4)2. a. 223. 21 g/mol b. 123. 76 g/mol c. 119. 52 g/mol d. 247. 52 g/mol e. 75. 76 g/mol Answer: A 105. Calculate the molar mass of Al(C2H3O2)3. a. 86. 03 g/mol b. 204. 13 g/mol c. 56. 00 g/mol d. 258. 09 g/mol e. 139. 99 g/mol Answer: B 106. How many millimoles of Ca(NO3)2 contain 4. 8 ? 1022 formula units of Ca(NO3)2? The molar mass of Ca(NO3)2 is 164. 10 g/mol. a. 12. 6 mmol Ca(NO3)2 b. 13. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 c. 20. 7 mmol Ca(NO3)2 d. 79. 4 mmol Ca(NO3)2 e. 57. 0 mmol Ca(NO3)2 Answer: D 107. How many C2H4 molecules are contained in 45. 8 mg of C2H4? The molar mass of C2H4 is 28. 05 g/mol. a. 9. 83 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules b. 7. 74 ? 1026 C2H4 molecules c. 2. 71 ? 1020 C2H4 molecules d. 3. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules e. 4. 69 ? 1023 C2H4 molecules Answer: A 108. What is the mass of 9. 44 ? 1024 molecules of NO2? The molar mass of NO2 is 46. 01 g/mol. a. 205 g b. 294 g c. 721 g d. 341 g e. 685 g Answer: C 109. Calculate the mass percent composition of sulfur in Al2(SO4)3. a. 28. 12 % b. 9. 372 % c. 42. 73 % d. 21. 38 % e. 35. 97 % Answer: A 110. How many moles of N2O3 contain 2. 55 ? 1024 oxygen atoms? (change the molecule) a. 1. 41 moles N2O3 b. 4. 23 moles N2O3 c. 12. 7 moles N2O3 d. 7. 87 moles N2O3 e. 2. 82 moles N2O3 Answer: A 111. How many moles of PCl3 contain 3. 68 ? 1025 chlorine atoms? a. 61. 1 moles PCl3 b. 20. 4 moles PCl3 c. 16. 4 moles PCl3 d. 54. 5 moles PCl3 e. 49. 1 moles PCl3 Answer: B 112. How many sodium ions are contained in 99. 6 mg of Na2SO3? The molar mass of Na2SO3 is 126. 05 g/mol. a. 1. 52 ? 1027 sodium ions . 4. 76 ? 1020 sodium ions c. 2. 10 ? 1021 sodium ions d. 1. 05 ? 1021 sodium ions e. 9. 52 ? 1020 sodium ions Answer: E 113. Determine the volume of hexane that contains 5. 33 ? 1022 molecules of hexane. The density of hexane is 0. 6548 g/mL and its molar mass is 86. 17 g/mol. a. 8. 59 mL b. 13. 5 mL c. 7. 40 mL d. 12. 4 mL e. 11. 6 mL Answer: E 114. Determine the molecular formula of a compound that has a molar mass of 92. 0 g/mol and an empirical formula of NO2. a. N2O3 b. N3O6 c. N2O4 d. NO2 e. N2O5 Answer: C 115. Determine the empirical formula for a compound that is 36. 86% N and 63. 14% O by mass. a. NO b. N2O c. NO2 d. N2O3 e. NO3 Answer: D 116. Write a balanced equation to show the reaction of gaseous ethane with gaseous oxygen to form carbon monoxide gas and water vapor. a. 2 C2H6(g) + 7 O2(g) > 4 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g) b. C2H6(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) c. 2 C2H6(g) + 5 O2(g) > 4 CO(g) + 6 H2O(g) d. C2H6(g) + 7 O(g) > 2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(g) e. 2 CH3(g) + 5 O(g) > 2 CO(g) + 3 H2O(g) Answer: C 117. Which of the following is one possible form of pentane? a. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 b. CH3CH=CHCH2CH3 c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 d. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 e. CH3CH2-O-CH2CH2CH3 Answer: A 118. List the elements in a hydrocarbon Answer: hydrogen and carbon 119. What type of bonding is found in the compound OF2? a. covalent bonding b. hydrogen bonding c. ionic bonding d. metallic bonding Answer: A 120. In which set do all elements tend to form cations in binary ionic compounds? a. K, Ga, O b. Sr, Ni, Hg c. N, P, Bi d. O, Br, I Answer: B 121. Rb2S is named a. rubidium disulfide. b. rubidium sulfide. c. rubidium(II) sulfide. d. rubidium sulfur. Answer: B 122. An aqueous solution of H2S is named a. hydrosulfuric acid. b. hydrosulfurous acid. c. sulfuric acid. d. sulfurous acid. Answer: A 123. What is the molar mass of nitrogen gas? a. 14. 0 g/mol b. 28. 0 g/mol c. 6. 02 ? 1023 g/mol d. 1. 20 ? 023 g/mol Answer: B 124. What mass of carbon dioxide, C O2, contains the same number of molecules as 3. 00 g of trichlorofluoromethane, CCl3F? a. 0. 106 g b. 0. 961 g c. 1. 04 g d. 9. 37 g e. Answer: B 125. Which of the following has the greatest mass? a. 3. 88 ? 1022 molecules of O2 b. 1. 00 g of O2 c. 0. 0312 mol of O2 d. All of the above have the same mass. Answer: A 126. A sample of pure calcium fluoride with a mass of 15. 0 g contains 7. 70 g of calcium. How much calcium is contained in 40. 0 g of calcium fluoride? a. 2. 27 g b. 7. 70 g c. 15. 0 g d. 20. 5 g Answer: D 127. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 62. % C, 10. 4% H, and 27. 5% O by mass? a. C3HO b. C6HO3 c. C6H12O2 d. C5H10O2 e. C3H6O Answer: E 128. How many oxygen atoms are there in 7. 00 g of sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7? a. 0. 187 oxygen atoms b. 2. 30 ? 1021 oxygen atoms c. 1. 60 ? 1022 oxygen atoms d. 1. 13 ? 1023 oxygen atoms Answer: D 129. Methane and oxygen react to form carbon dioxide and water. What mass of water is formed if 0. 80 g of methane reacts with 3. 2 g of oxygen to produce 2. 2 g of carbon dioxide? a. 1. 8 g b. 2. 2 g c. 3. 7 g d. 4. 0 g Answer: A 130. Combustion analysis of 1. 200 g of an unknown compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen produced 2. 86 g of CO2 and 1. 134 g of H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound? a. C2H5O b. C2H5O2 c. C2H10O3 d. C3H8O2 Answer: D 131. What is the stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen when the following equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-number coefficients? _____ C2H6O (l) + _____ O2(g) > _____ CO2(g) + _____ H2O(l) a. 9 b. 7 c. 5 d. 3 Answer: D 132. Calcium phosphate reacts with sulfuric acid to form calcium sulfate and phosphoric acid. What is the coefficient for sulfuric acid when the equation is balanced using the lowest, whole-numbered coefficients? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. none of these Answer: C